ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Nursing 12601 Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is talking to the parents of a pediatric client about mental healthcare. The nurse explains that the factor having influence on the current trend in treatment settings is the fact in recent years:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: funding for community programs has been inadequate. In recent years, there has been a shift towards community-based mental healthcare due to the recognition that it is more effective and less stigmatizing than institutional care. However, inadequate funding for these programs has been a major barrier to their development and expansion. This lack of funding has impacted the accessibility and quality of community mental health services, influencing the current trend in treatment settings towards community-based care.
Summary of other choices:
B: Community programs fully developed - This is incorrect because community programs are often underdeveloped and insufficient to meet the growing treatment needs.
C: State hospitals expanded - This is incorrect as the trend has been towards deinstitutionalization and reducing reliance on state hospitals.
D: Laws enabling more commitments - This is incorrect as the trend is towards promoting voluntary treatment and community-based care rather than involuntary commitments.
Extract:
A nurse is taking care of a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Assessment findings reveal a stooped posture, shuffling gait with small steps, and tremor.
Question 2 of 5
Based on the nursing assessment, the client is most likely experiencing ---------------- due to the antipsychotic drug --------------------
| Akathisia |
| Pseudoparkinsonism |
| Blocking the dopamine receptors |
| Tardive dyskinesia |
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: [, ()]
The correct answer is B,C. Pseudoparkinsonism can occur as a side effect of antipsychotic drugs due to blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. This leads to symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease. Tardive dyskinesia, option D, is a movement disorder that can be a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, but it is not directly related to dopamine receptor blocking. Akathisia, option A, is a condition characterized by restlessness and the inability to sit still, often caused by antipsychotic medications, but it is not directly linked to dopamine receptor blocking.
Therefore, options B and C are the most likely effects based on the client's assessment and drug mechanism.
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is working with a client that is displaying psychotic behavior with poorly controlled emotions. The family of the client asks, 'What part of the brain controls emotions?'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The Limbic System. The Limbic System, specifically the amygdala and hippocampus, plays a crucial role in regulating emotions. The amygdala is responsible for processing emotions such as fear and pleasure, while the hippocampus is involved in memory formation and emotional responses. These structures within the Limbic System help modulate emotional responses, which is important in understanding and managing psychotic behavior with poorly controlled emotions. The other options (A: Parietal Lobe, B: Endocrine System, D: Occipital Lobe) do not primarily control emotions and are more related to functions such as sensory processing, hormone regulation, and visual processing, respectively.
Question 4 of 5
A client is being seen in the mental health clinic. The client has been on a conventional, first-generation antipsychotic for 8 months and is now exhibiting tongue protrusion, lip smacking, and rapid eye blinking. A nurse would document this chronic syndrome as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a chronic syndrome characterized by involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, and face, as described in the client's symptoms. This condition is commonly associated with long-term use of first-generation antipsychotics, like the one the client has been taking for 8 months. Tardive dyskinesia typically develops after prolonged exposure to antipsychotic medications and is often irreversible.
A: Akathisia is characterized by restlessness and the inability to sit still, not the involuntary movements described in the client.
B: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome presents with fever, altered mental status, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction, not the specific movements seen in the client.
C: Dystonia involves sustained muscle contractions leading to abnormal postures or repetitive movements, but it does not typically involve the specific facial movements described.
Therefore, D is the most appropriate choice given the
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder in a residential facility who refuses to participate in therapies because their parent did not answer the phone when the client called the previous evening. The client told the nurse, 'I know they are mad at me.' The nurse asks the client, 'Are there other reasons you can think of that could have caused your parent not to answer the phone last evening?' In this statement, the nurse is using which type of therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rational Emotive Therapy. Rational Emotive Therapy focuses on challenging irrational beliefs and replacing them with rational thoughts. In this scenario, the nurse is helping the client explore alternative reasons for their parent's behavior, encouraging them to consider other perspectives and challenging their assumption that the parent is mad at them. This approach aligns with the principles of Rational Emotive Therapy.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Cognitive Theory focuses on restructuring thoughts, Reality Therapy emphasizes personal responsibility and choices, and Gestalt Therapy focuses on promoting self-awareness and personal growth, which are not explicitly demonstrated in the scenario.