ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is taking a medication history from a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. The nurse should instruct the client to wait 4 hr after taking levothyroxine before taking which of the following supplements?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Calcium. Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to ensure optimal absorption. Calcium can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine, so it is recommended to wait at least 4 hours after taking levothyroxine before consuming calcium supplements. Ginkgo biloba, Vitamin C, and Zinc do not significantly interfere with levothyroxine absorption, so there is no need to wait specifically for them. Calcium is the correct choice because of its known interference with levothyroxine absorption.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client for the first time and needs to know about potential food and medication interactions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Consulting a drug reference guide is essential to gather information on potential food and medication interactions.
2. Drug reference guides provide comprehensive and up-to-date information on drug interactions.
3. It is a reliable source to ensure the safety and effectiveness of medication administration.
4. This proactive approach demonstrates thorough research and professional responsibility.
Incorrect
Choices:
A: Having the client take the medication on an empty stomach may not always be the appropriate action and could lead to adverse effects.
C: Relying on another nurse's knowledge may not guarantee accurate information on all potential interactions.
D: Checking the client's medical record may provide some information, but a drug reference guide offers more extensive details on interactions.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client in the post-anesthesia unit who is experiencing malignant hyperthermia. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dantrolene. Dantrolene is the drug of choice for treating malignant hyperthermia, a rare but life-threatening condition triggered by certain medications used during anesthesia. Dantrolene works by inhibiting the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle cells, which helps to reduce muscle contractions and hyperthermia. Verapamil (
A) is a calcium channel blocker used for different purposes. Naloxone (
B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdoses. Cefazolin (
C) is an antibiotic used for treating infections. In summary, Dantrolene is the appropriate choice for managing malignant hyperthermia due to its mechanism of action in preventing further muscle contraction and hyperthermia.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse in a provider's office is evaluating the effectiveness of alendronate for a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following diagnostic results should the nurse review?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (Dexa scan). The Dexa scan is a diagnostic test used to measure bone mineral density and assess the effectiveness of osteoporosis treatment like alendronate. It helps in monitoring the client's bone health and determining if the medication is working to prevent further bone loss. Reviewing the Dexa scan results can provide valuable information on the client's response to the treatment.
Choice A (Urine specific gravity) is not relevant to evaluating the effectiveness of alendronate for osteoporosis.
Choice B (Hemoglobin A1
C) is a test for diabetes management and not specific to osteoporosis treatment.
Choice D (Lumbar puncture) is an invasive procedure used to collect cerebrospinal fluid and is not related to evaluating osteoporosis treatment.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving high-dose metoclopramide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Metoclopramide, especially at high doses, can cause tardive dyskinesia, which is a serious movement disorder characterized by uncontrollable facial and body movements. This adverse effect is associated with long-term use of metoclopramide and can be irreversible.
A: Dry cough is not a common adverse effect of metoclopramide.
B: Oral candidiasis is a fungal infection and is not directly linked to metoclopramide use.
C: Black stools can be a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is not a typical adverse effect of metoclopramide.
D: Tardive dyskinesia is a known adverse effect of metoclopramide, especially with long-term use.
E, F, G: No additional options provided.