ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive 2024 Exit Exam with NGN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is setting up a sterile field to perform wound irrigation for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when pouring the sterile solution?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When setting up a sterile field, it is essential to maintain sterility. By removing the cap and placing it sterile-side up on a clean surface, the nurse ensures that the inside of the cap, which will come into contact with the sterile solution, remains uncontaminated. Placing the cap sterile-side up prevents any potential contaminants from coming into contact with the solution. This practice follows aseptic technique guidelines to prevent the introduction of pathogens.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the key principle of maintaining sterility. Placing sterile gauze over spilled solution (
B) can introduce contaminants to the field, holding the bottle in the center (
C) does not prevent contamination, and the orientation of the label (
D) does not affect sterility.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is creating a plan of care for a female client who has recurrent urinary tract infections. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wear loose-fitting underwear. Tight clothing can trap moisture and bacteria, leading to UTIs. Loose-fitting underwear allows for better air circulation, reducing the risk of infection.
Choice B is incorrect as bubble baths can irritate the urinary tract.
Choice C is important for hydration but not directly related to preventing UTIs.
Choice D is good practice for bladder health but does not specifically address UTI prevention.
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a newborn. Vital Signs 0640: Temperature 36.7° C(98.1° F) axillary Heart rate 154/min Respiratory rate 68/min BP 72/48 mm Hg 0650: Heart rate 156/min Respiratory rate 72/min 0700: Temperature 37° C(98.6° F) axillary Heart rate 156/min Respiratory rate 76/min Admission Assessment 0630: Newborn delivered via cesarean birth under spinal anesthesia at 0630. Amniotic fluid clear 0631: 1-min Apgar score 7 0536 5-min Apgar score 9 Newborn transferred to nursery Nurses' Notes 0640: Weight 4200 gm(9 ib 4 oz, head circumference 35.5 cm(14 in) Respiratory rate 68/min, with mild grunting 0650: Respiratory rate 72/min, with mild grunting 0700: Respiratory rate 76/min, with moderate grunting and mild intercostal retractions
Question 3 of 5
The client is at risk for developing ------- and--------
Correct Answer: A, C
Rationale: The correct answer is A and C. Hypoglycemia and transient tachypnea of the newborn are common risks for newborns. Hypoglycemia can occur due to immature liver function, while transient tachypnea results from retained lung fluid. The other choices are incorrect because bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a chronic lung condition seen in premature infants, and tachycardia is a symptom of various conditions but not typically a primary risk for newborns.
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for an infant who has gastroenteritis. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sunken fontanels and dry mucous membranes. These findings indicate severe dehydration in the infant, which is a critical condition that requires immediate intervention. Sunken fontanels suggest significant fluid loss, while dry mucous membranes are indicative of dehydration. Reporting these findings to the provider is crucial for prompt treatment to prevent further complications.
Incorrect Answer A: Pale and a 24 hr fluid deficit of 30 ml. Pale skin alone may not indicate severe dehydration, and a 24-hour fluid deficit of 30 ml is relatively small and not alarming.
Incorrect Answer C: Decreased appetite and irritability. These are common symptoms of gastroenteritis and may not necessarily indicate a need for immediate reporting to the provider.
Incorrect Answer D: Temperature 38° C and pulse rate 124/min. These vital signs are elevated but do not directly indicate severe dehydration requiring immediate reporting.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is conducting health promotion education regarding contraindications to combination oral contraceptive use to a group of women. Which of the following conditions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Hypertension is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptive use due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events. Hypertension can be exacerbated by hormonal contraceptives, leading to serious complications like stroke or heart attack. It is crucial for women with hypertension to avoid estrogen-containing contraceptives.
B: Fibromyalgia, C: Renal calculi, D: Fibrocystic breast disease are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptive use. Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder, renal calculi are kidney stones, and fibrocystic breast disease is a benign breast condition. These conditions do not impact the safety or efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.