ATI RN
ATI Capstone Week 9 Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medication record for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as having the potential to cause nephrotoxicity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gentamicin. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause nephrotoxicity, particularly in patients with chronic kidney disease due to its potential to accumulate in the kidneys. This can lead to kidney damage and impaired renal function. Ondansetron (
A) and Diphenhydramine (
B) are not typically associated with nephrotoxicity. Omeprazole (
D) is a proton pump inhibitor used for acid-related disorders and is not known to cause nephrotoxicity.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
Correct Answer: 4
Rationale: The correct answer is 4 mL.
To calculate this, we use the formula: Desired dose/Available dose = Volume to administer. In this case, 40 mg/10 mg/mL = 4 mL. Each mL contains 10 mg of furosemide, so to administer 40 mg, the nurse should give 4 mL. Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the correct calculation. For example, choosing 10 mL (choice G) would result in administering 100 mg, not the desired 40 mg.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is teaching about disease management for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because administering insulin injections in the abdominal area helps with faster absorption and consistent insulin action. This practice is recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes to maintain stable blood sugar levels.
Choice B is incorrect as blood sugar readings should ideally be taken before meals.
Choice C is incorrect because insulin does not allow unrestricted consumption of high-sugar foods like ice cream.
Choice D is incorrect because a weight reduction program, if managed properly, should not lead to hypoglycemia in a client with type 1 diabetes.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has not voided for 8 hr following the removal of an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should be the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to perform a bladder scan (
Choice
C). This is the most appropriate initial step to assess the client's bladder volume without being invasive. It allows the nurse to determine if the client is retaining urine, which could be causing the inability to void. If the bladder scan shows a large volume of urine, then the nurse can proceed with appropriate interventions such as catheterization. Providing assistance to the bathroom (
Choice
A) may not be effective if there is significant urinary retention. Increasing fluids (
Choice
B) may worsen the situation by further distending the bladder. Inserting a straight catheter (
Choice
D) without assessing the bladder volume can be harmful and should only be done after determining the need through a bladder scan.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medication record for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as having the potential to cause nephrotoxicity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gentamicin. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause nephrotoxicity, particularly in patients with chronic kidney disease due to its potential to accumulate in the kidneys. This can lead to kidney damage and impaired renal function. Ondansetron (
A) and Diphenhydramine (
B) are not typically associated with nephrotoxicity. Omeprazole (
D) is a proton pump inhibitor used for acid-related disorders and is not known to cause nephrotoxicity.