ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who has cancer and is receiving morphine via a PCA pump. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nalbuphine. The nurse should clarify this prescription because nalbuphine is an opioid analgesic antagonist. Co-administration with morphine, an opioid agonist, can lead to decreased analgesic effects and potential opioid withdrawal symptoms. Acetaminophen (
B) is a non-opioid analgesic and does not interact significantly with morphine. Ondansetron (
C) is an antiemetic commonly used with opioids to prevent nausea and vomiting. Insulin glargine (
D) is a long-acting insulin used to manage diabetes and does not have a direct interaction with morphine.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has started taking theophylline. Which of the following client findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased wheezing. Theophylline is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions like asthma by relaxing the muscles in the airways. When theophylline is effective, it helps to open up the airways, leading to decreased wheezing. This indicates improved airflow and better respiratory function. Increased blood pressure (
A) is not a direct indication of theophylline effectiveness. Decreased urine output (
C) could suggest dehydration or kidney issues, not necessarily related to theophylline. Increased level of consciousness (
D) is a general assessment parameter and not specific to theophylline effectiveness.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking phenelzine and reports eating aged cheese. Which of the following is a manifestation of an interaction between the medication and the food?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypertension. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that can interact with tyramine-rich foods like aged cheese, leading to hypertensive crisis. Tyramine can displace norepinephrine, causing a sudden increase in blood pressure. Somnolence (choice
A) is a common side effect of phenelzine but not related to the interaction with aged cheese. Diarrhea (choice
B) is not a typical manifestation of this interaction. Bradycardia (choice
C) is not associated with the MAOI and aged cheese interaction.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver and is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased ascites. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in cirrhosis to manage ascites by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid accumulation in the abdomen.
Therefore, a decrease in ascites would indicate that the client is responding to the treatment. Increased energy (
A) and increased appetite (
D) are not specific indicators of treatment response in cirrhosis. Decreased jaundice (
B) may improve with liver function but is not a direct response to spironolactone.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rifampin can cause a harmless side effect of turning urine, saliva, sweat, and tears orange. This is important for the client to be aware of to prevent unnecessary worry or concern.
Choice A is incorrect because rifampin can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
Choice B is incorrect as rifampin is usually taken on an empty stomach.
Choice C is incorrect as wearing soft contact lenses is not recommended due to the potential for discoloration.