ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2023/24 1st Attempt & Retake Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who had a vaginal delivery 3 hr ago. Which of the following findings place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: The correct answer choices, A, C, and D, all contribute to an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage. A, labor induction with oxytocin, can lead to uterine hyperstimulation, increasing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. C, vacuum-assisted delivery, may cause trauma to the birth canal, leading to increased bleeding. D, history of uterine atony, indicates a previous inability of the uterus to contract effectively, which is a major risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage.
Therefore, these factors collectively place the client at a higher risk for postpartum hemorrhage.
Choices B and E are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client following an amniocentesis at 18 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a potential complication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Leakage of fluid from the vagina. After an amniocentesis, leakage of amniotic fluid from the vagina can indicate a potential complication like premature rupture of membranes. This complication can lead to preterm labor and delivery, endangering both the mother and the fetus. Reporting this finding promptly to the provider allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. Increased fetal movement , upper abdominal discomfort , and urinary frequency are common and expected after an amniocentesis and do not necessarily indicate a complication.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for combined oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as an adverse effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Depression. Combined oral contraceptives can lead to mood changes, including depression, as a known adverse effect. This is due to hormonal fluctuations caused by the medication.
Choice B, polyuria, is excessive urination which is not typically associated with oral contraceptives.
Choice C, hypotension, is low blood pressure and is not a common adverse effect of this medication.
Choice D, urticaria, is hives or skin rash, which is not directly linked to oral contraceptives. In summary, depression is the correct adverse effect to include in teaching as it is a recognized side effect of combined oral contraceptives, while the other choices are not commonly associated with this medication.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who reports spontaneous rupture of membranes. The nurse observes fetal bradycardia on the FHR tracing and notices that the umbilical cord is protruding. After calling for assistance and notifying the provider, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cover the umbilical cord with a sterile saline-saturated towel. This action is crucial to prevent umbilical cord compression, maintain blood flow to the fetus, and reduce the risk of hypoxia. By covering the umbilical cord with a sterile saline-saturated towel, the nurse can protect the cord from further compression and potential infection. Performing a vaginal examination (choice
A) could worsen the situation by causing more cord compression. Administering oxygen (choice
C) is important but covering the cord takes priority. Initiating IV fluids (choice
D) is not the immediate priority in this emergency situation.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is admitting a client to the birthing unit who reports her contractions started 1 hr ago. The nurse determines the client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated. The nurse realizes that the client is at risk for which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum hemorrhage. The client being 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated indicates she is in active labor, not pregnant with an ectopic pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, which is not related to the client's current condition. Incompetent cervix would present earlier in pregnancy with painless cervical dilation, not during active labor. Postpartum hemorrhage is a risk due to the advanced dilation and effacement, making the uterus more prone to atony and excessive bleeding after delivery.