ATI RN
ATI Nur27500 Pathopharm Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as a risk factor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus is a risk factor for urinary tract infections due to elevated glucose levels in the urine, which can promote bacterial growth. Additionally, diabetes weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Anemia (
B), osteoporosis (
C), and COPD (
D) are not direct risk factors for UTIs. Anemia is a condition characterized by low red blood cell count, osteoporosis is a bone disease, and COPD is a lung disease. These conditions do not directly impact the likelihood of developing a UTI.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following values should give the nurse the best indication of the client's renal function?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum creatinine. Serum creatinine is a reliable indicator of renal function as it reflects the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). In clients with SLE, renal involvement is common, so monitoring creatinine levels helps assess kidney function. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired renal function, while normal levels suggest normal renal function.
A: Urine-specific gravity is more indicative of hydration status and concentrating ability of the kidneys, not a direct measure of renal function.
B: Serum potassium levels can be affected by various factors, including renal function, but they are not the best indicator of overall renal function.
D: Serum sodium levels are more related to fluid balance and hydration status, not specifically renal function.
In summary, serum creatinine is the best choice as it directly reflects renal function, while the other options are not as specific to kidney function in the context of SLE.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has asthma and new prescriptions for albuterol and fluticasone, both by nebulizer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I will be sure to use the albuterol nebulizer before the fluticasone." This answer is correct because albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that helps to open the airways quickly, providing immediate relief during an asthma attack. Fluticasone, on the other hand, is a corticosteroid medication that helps to reduce inflammation in the airways over time. Using the albuterol first helps to open the airways, allowing the fluticasone to penetrate deeper into the lungs and be more effective. It is important to use the bronchodilator before the corticosteroid to optimize the benefits of both medications.
Choice A is incorrect because fluticasone is not a rescue medication for immediate relief of asthma symptoms.
Choice C is incorrect because rinsing the mouth after using inhalers is important to prevent oral thrush, a common side effect of inhaled cort
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing education to a school-age child who has a new diagnosis of asthma. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid triggers that cause an attack. This statement is essential in asthma management as identifying and avoiding triggers can help prevent asthma exacerbations. It empowers the child to take control of their condition. Option A is incorrect because the peak expiratory flow meter should be used daily to monitor asthma control. Option B is incorrect as cromolyn sodium is a preventive medication, not a rescue medication for acute symptoms. Option D is incorrect as exercise is beneficial for asthma management, and the child should be encouraged to participate in activities with proper asthma management strategies.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client about taking diphenhydramine. The nurse should explain to the client that which of the following is a side effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sedation. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that commonly causes sedation as a side effect due to its ability to cross the blood-brain barrier and act on the central nervous system. This sedative effect is why diphenhydramine is often used in medications to help with sleep or allergies. Bradycardia (
A) is not a common side effect of diphenhydramine, as it does not significantly affect heart rate. Hypertension (
B) is also not associated with this medication. Bleeding (
C) is not a typical side effect of diphenhydramine, as it does not have anticoagulant properties. Thus, the correct answer is D due to the sedative properties of diphenhydramine.