ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam -Nurselytic

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the estrogen-progestin combination. Carbamazepine can decrease the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives, such as estrogen-progestin combinations, leading to a potential decrease in contraceptive efficacy and an increased risk of unintended pregnancy. This interaction occurs because carbamazepine can induce the metabolism of estrogen and progestin components, reducing their blood levels.
Therefore, it is important for the nurse to recognize this interaction and advise the client to use alternative contraceptive methods while taking carbamazepine to prevent unintended pregnancy. The other choices (A, B, and
D) do not have significant interactions with carbamazepine and are not directly affected by its metabolism.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the provider of the client's weight gain. This is the most appropriate action because sudden weight gain in a client with heart failure could indicate fluid retention, a potential worsening condition requiring immediate medical attention. By notifying the provider, the nurse ensures timely intervention and adjustment of the treatment plan to prevent complications.

A: Encouraging the client to dangle legs does not address the immediate concern of weight gain and potential fluid retention.
B: Teaching about low-sodium foods may be important for long-term management but is not the priority in this acute situation.
C: Determining medication adherence is important but does not address the urgent need for intervention in response to the weight gain.
In summary, notifying the provider is crucial in addressing the potential exacerbation of heart failure, making it the most appropriate action.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking a high ceiling diuretic predisposes the client to digoxin toxicity because diuretics can cause hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity is more likely in patients with low potassium levels.
Choice B (COPD history), C (prolapsed mitral valve), and D (HMG CoA reductase inhibitor) are incorrect as they do not directly impact digoxin toxicity risk through potassium levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evaluate the client for orthostatic hypotension. In this situation, the nurse administered double the prescribed dose of valsartan, which is an antihypertensive medication. Valsartan can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to orthostatic hypotension, especially at higher doses.
Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of orthostatic hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. This immediate evaluation is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

Other choices are incorrect because:
B: Monitoring urine output is not the priority in this scenario as the issue at hand is related to a potential adverse effect of the medication.
C: Obtaining laboratory results is not the immediate action needed in response to the medication error.
D: Checking for nasal congestion is not relevant to the situation and does not address the potential adverse effects of the

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Osteoporosis. Raloxifene is a medication used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women by increasing bone mineral density and reducing the risk of fractures. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator. The other choices (B, C, D, E, F, G) are incorrect because raloxifene is not indicated for hypothyroidism, urinary tract infection, or any other condition besides osteoporosis. It is important for the nurse to understand the specific indications and mechanisms of action of medications to ensure safe and effective patient care.