ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 Retake 2 | Nurselytic

Questions 59

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ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 Retake 2 Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A nurse is reviewing a client's medication administration record and finds digoxin was administered to the client with a heart rate of 58/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Examine the client's vital signs and condition. The nurse should first assess the client's current status to determine if any adverse effects of digoxin, such as bradycardia, are occurring. This step is crucial for immediate intervention if necessary.
A: Notifying the nurse manager can be done later after assessing the client.
B: Filing an incident report is important but not the first priority when the client's safety is at risk.
C: Notifying the provider can be done after assessing the client's condition.
In summary, assessing the client's vital signs and condition is the priority to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is administering 4 mg of hydromorphone to a client by mouth every 4 hr. The medication is provided as hydromorphone 8 mg per tablet. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dispose of the remaining medication while another nurse observes. This is because hydromorphone is a controlled substance and must be disposed of properly in the presence of another nurse as a witness to maintain accountability and prevent diversion. Returning the medication to the pharmacy (
A) is not appropriate as it could lead to incorrect administration. Storing the remaining half of the pill in the automated medication dispensing system (
C) or placing it in the unit-dose package (
D) can lead to potential errors or misuse.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver and is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased ascites. Spironolactone is a diuretic commonly used in liver cirrhosis to reduce fluid retention and ascites. As the medication helps the kidneys excrete excess fluid, a decrease in ascites signifies a positive response to treatment. Increased energy (
A) and increased appetite (
C) are not direct indicators of spironolactone's effectiveness in treating cirrhosis. Decreased jaundice (
D) may improve with liver function but is not a specific response to spironolactone.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin and reports taking several new herbal supplements. The nurse should identify that which of the following supplements is contraindicated for concurrent use with warfarin?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ginkgo biloba. Ginkgo biloba is contraindicated with warfarin because it can increase the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Warfarin also acts as a blood thinner, so combining the two can lead to excessive bleeding. Valerian (
B), Coenzyme Q10 (
C), and probiotics (
D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Valerian is used for sleep and anxiety, Coenzyme Q10 is an antioxidant, and probiotics are beneficial for gut health.
Therefore, Ginkgo biloba is the only supplement that poses a risk of increased bleeding when taken concurrently with warfarin.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL via intermittent IV bolus over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale:
To calculate the IV infusion rate in drops per minute (gtt/min) for cefazolin 1 g in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL, use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL ÷ Time in min) × Drop factor.

1 g in 100 mL = 100 mL
(100 mL ÷ 30 min) × 15 gtt/mL = 50 gtt/min


Therefore, the correct answer is A (50 gtt/min) because it accurately calculates the IV infusion rate based on the given parameters. Other choices are incorrect as they do not correctly apply the formula or round the answer incorrectly.

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