ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 retake 1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 4
A nurse is reviewing a client's medication administration record and finds digoxin was administered to the client with a heart rate of 58/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Examine the client's vital signs and condition first. This is the priority as digoxin can cause bradycardia, and a heart rate of 58/min is below the normal range. The nurse must assess the client's current condition for signs of digoxin toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, or visual disturbances. This immediate assessment will help determine the client's need for further interventions or medical attention.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Notifying the nurse manager can be done later after ensuring the client's safety.
B: Filing an incident report is important but should not be the immediate action.
C: Notifying the provider is necessary but assessing the client's condition is the priority.
In summary, examining the client first ensures immediate intervention for potential digoxin toxicity, while the other options can be addressed subsequently.
Question 2 of 4
A nurse is administering 4 mg of hydromorphone to a client by mouth every 4 hr. The medication is provided as hydromorphone 8 mg per tablet. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dispose of the remaining medication while another nurse observes. This is appropriate because hydromorphone is a controlled substance, and any remaining medication should be properly disposed of to prevent misuse or theft. Another nurse should observe the disposal process to ensure accountability and adherence to protocols.
Incorrect choices:
A: Returning the medication to the pharmacy is not appropriate as it can lead to potential errors or misuse.
C: Storing the remaining half of the pill in the automated system can lead to confusion and potential errors in medication administration.
D: Placing the remaining half of the pill in the unit-dose package is incorrect as the medication should be properly disposed of rather than saved for future use.
Question 3 of 4
A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver and is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased ascites. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in liver cirrhosis to reduce fluid retention and ascites. A decrease in ascites indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid accumulation in the abdomen, a key goal in managing cirrhosis. Increased energy (choice
A) and increased appetite (choice
C) are not directly related to the medication's action on fluid retention. Decreased jaundice (choice
D) may indicate improved liver function but is not a specific response to spironolactone in treating ascites.
Question 4 of 4
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin and reports taking several new herbal supplements. The nurse should identify that which of the following supplements is contraindicated for concurrent use with warfarin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ginkgo biloba. Ginkgo biloba is contraindicated with warfarin due to its potential to increase bleeding risk by inhibiting platelet aggregation and interfering with clotting mechanisms. Ginkgo biloba can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Valerian (
B), Coenzyme Q10 (
C), and Probiotics (
D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Valerian may cause drowsiness, Coenzyme Q10 is a supplement that supports heart health, and probiotics are beneficial for gut health.
Therefore, Ginkgo biloba is the correct answer due to its potential to interact with warfarin and increase bleeding risk.
Question 5 of 4
A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL via intermittent IV bolus over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 50 gtt/min.
To calculate the IV infusion rate, we need to determine the total volume to be infused over 30 minutes. The total volume to be infused is 100 mL. Convert the volume to drops by multiplying it by the drop factor (100 mL x 15 gtt/mL = 1500 gtt).
To find the rate in gtt/min, divide the total volume by the time in minutes (1500 gtt ÷ 30 min = 50 gtt/min). Setting the manual IV infusion to deliver 50 gtt/min ensures the cefazolin is administered correctly. Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the correct calculation process or result in different infusion rates.