ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam B Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for doxycycline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Taking doxycycline with a full glass of water prevents esophageal irritation. Antacids reduce absorption, grapefruit juice is unrelated, and tooth discoloration is a risk in children.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection and has a new colostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Applying a skin barrier around the stoma protects the peristomal skin from irritation and breakdown caused by contact with stool, a common issue with a new colostomy.
Choice B is incorrect because the colostomy bag should be emptied when it is one-third to one-half full to prevent leakage and skin irritation, not when full.
Choice C is incorrect because the colostomy appliance is typically changed every 3-7 days, not daily, unless there is leakage or skin irritation.
Choice D is incorrect because petroleum jelly is not recommended, as it can interfere with the adhesion of the colostomy appliance; a skin barrier or protective paste is preferred.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metronidazole for bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Expecting a metallic taste in the mouth is a common side effect of metronidazole, and informing the client helps them anticipate and tolerate this effect during treatment for bacterial vaginosis.
Choice A is correct but not the best answer here, as avoiding alcohol is critical to prevent a disulfiram-like reaction, but the question focuses on expected effects, making C more specific.
Choice B is incorrect because metronidazole can be taken with or without food; a high-fat meal is not necessary.
Choice D is incorrect because metronidazole is typically taken 2-3 times daily, not only at bedtime, to maintain therapeutic levels.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nystagmus (involuntary eye movements) is a common manifestation of multiple sclerosis due to demyelination affecting the optic nerve or cerebellar pathways, impacting vision and coordination.
Choice B is incorrect because multiple sclerosis typically causes hyperactive deep tendon reflexes due to upper motor neuron involvement, not hypoactive reflexes.
Choice C is incorrect because persistent nausea is not a hallmark symptom of multiple sclerosis; it may occur secondary to medications or other conditions.
Choice D is incorrect because fever is not typical unless the client has an infection or is experiencing a pseudoexacerbation triggered by heat.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease and a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential, as epoetin alfa, used to treat anemia in chronic kidney disease, can cause hypertension as a side effect, requiring close monitoring and potential antihypertensive therapy.
Choice B is wrong because epoetin alfa is administered by injection (subcutaneous or intravenous), not orally, so it is not taken with meals.
Choice C is wrong because epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production but does not directly increase urine output, which is typically reduced in chronic kidney disease.
Choice D is wrong because epoetin alfa should be stored in the refrigerator (2-8°C or 36-46°F), not at room temperature, to maintain stability.