ATI RN
RN ATI Comprehensive Assessment Exam Retake 2023 V2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation about findings to report to the provider. Which of the following findings should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Swelling of the face. At 14 weeks of gestation, facial swelling could indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. This finding should be reported to the provider immediately for further evaluation and management to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Bleeding gums are common during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and increased blood flow to the gums.
B: Faintness upon rising may be due to postural hypotension, common in pregnancy.
C: Urinary frequency is a common complaint in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shuffling gait. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication known to cause extrapyramidal side effects like shuffling gait, which can indicate a serious movement disorder called tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly to the provider is crucial for early intervention. Weight gain (
A) and dry mouth (
B) are common side effects of many medications, including haloperidol, but they are not considered urgent to report. Sedation (
D) is a common side effect of haloperidol, but it is not typically a sign of a serious adverse reaction requiring immediate attention.
Question 3 of 5
A charge nurse is monitoring a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the procedure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: A - "I will hang a new bag of TPN and IV tubing every 24 hours."
Rationale: Changing the TPN bag and tubing every 24 hours is crucial to prevent contamination and infection. TPN is a high-risk solution that can support bacterial growth. Changing the bag and tubing decreases the risk of infection and ensures the client receives fresh and uncontaminated TPN.
Summary of Incorrect
Choices:
B: Obtaining the client's weight every other day is important for adjusting the TPN formula but does not demonstrate an understanding of the procedure like changing the bag and tubing.
C: Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every 8 hours is important for assessing tolerance to TPN but does not directly relate to the procedural aspect of TPN administration.
D: Increasing the rate of TPN infusion to ensure the correct amount is given is not safe practice and can lead to complications. The rate should be prescribed by the healthcare provider and not arbitrarily increased.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 min. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: C (Fetal anemia)
Rationale: Fetal anemia can lead to decreased oxygen delivery to the fetus, causing fetal bradycardia. Anemia reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, resulting in the heart working harder to compensate for the decreased oxygen levels, leading to a lower fetal heart rate.
Summary of Incorrect
Choices:
A: Maternal hypoglycemia - Unlikely to cause fetal bradycardia directly.
B: Chorioamnionitis - Typically presents with maternal fever and tachycardia, not fetal bradycardia.
D: Maternal fever - Can cause fetal tachycardia, not bradycardia.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has histrionic personality disorder. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Self-centered behavior. Individuals with histrionic personality disorder typically exhibit attention-seeking, dramatic, and overly emotional behaviors. They often crave approval and validation from others, focusing on themselves and their own needs. This behavior aligns with the core characteristics of histrionic personality disorder.
Choice A (Suspicious of others) is incorrect as suspicion is not a defining trait of histrionic personality disorder.
Choice B (Callousness) is inconsistent as histrionic individuals tend to be overly emotional rather than callous.
Choice D (Violates other's rights) is not a common feature of histrionic personality disorder.
In summary, the nurse should expect self-centered behavior in a client with histrionic personality disorder, as they typically display attention-seeking and dramatic behaviors, seeking validation and approval from others.