ATI RN
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ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam B Questions
Extract:
Question
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1 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide for edema. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring potassium is critical for clients taking furosemide, a loop diuretic that increases potassium excretion, potentially causing hypokalemia, which can lead to arrhythmias.
Choice A is incorrect because, while furosemide can cause hyponatremia, potassium is the primary electrolyte of concern due to its cardiac implications.
Choice B is incorrect because hemoglobin is not directly affected by furosemide; it is monitored for other conditions like anemia.
Choice C is incorrect because calcium levels are not significantly impacted by furosemide compared to potassium.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A barrel-shaped chest is a common finding in COPD due to chronic hyperinflation of the lungs, causing the chest to appear rounded and the anteroposterior diameter to increase.
Choice B is incorrect because COPD typically causes tachypnea (rapid breathing) as the body compensates for reduced oxygen exchange, not bradypnea.
Choice C is incorrect because, while clubbing of fingers can occur in advanced COPD with chronic hypoxia, it is less common and not a primary finding.
Choice D is incorrect because weight loss, not weight gain, is typical in COPD due to increased metabolic demand and difficulty eating from dyspnea.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for paroxetine for PTSD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring for suicidal thoughts is critical with paroxetine, an SSRI, as it carries a black box warning for increased suicide risk, especially in the early weeks of treatment for PTSD.
Choice A is incorrect because paroxetine is typically taken at bedtime, as it can cause sedation, not in the morning.
Choice B is incorrect because paroxetine takes 4-6 weeks to reduce PTSD symptoms like flashbacks, not immediate relief.
Choice C is incorrect because paroxetine should not be discontinued abruptly, even if symptoms improve, to avoid withdrawal or relapse; it requires provider guidance.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Excessive worrying for at least 6 months is a diagnostic criterion for generalized anxiety disorder, characterized by persistent, uncontrollable anxiety about multiple issues.
Choice B is incorrect because recurrent intrusive memories are more associated with PTSD, not generalized anxiety disorder.
Choice C is incorrect because insomnia, not hypersomnia, is typical due to anxiety-related sleep disturbances.
Choice D is incorrect because weight loss is not a primary feature; weight changes may occur secondary to anxiety or medication.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for zolpidem for insomnia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Avoiding alcohol is critical while taking zolpidem, a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic, as it enhances CNS depression, increasing the risk of respiratory depression or falls.
Choice A is incorrect because zolpidem is typically taken immediately before bedtime due to its rapid onset, not 30 minutes prior.
Choice C is incorrect because vivid dreams are not a common side effect; amnesia or sleepwalking may occur but are less frequent.
Choice D is incorrect because zolpidem can be taken with or without food; a snack is not necessary for absorption.