ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 III Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Rationale: The correct answer is D because rifampin can cause a harmless side effect of orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine. This is important for the client to be aware of to prevent unnecessary concern or alarm.
Choice A is incorrect as rifampin can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
Choice B is incorrect as rifampin is usually taken once daily in the morning on an empty stomach.
Choice C is incorrect as wearing soft contact lenses is not recommended while on rifampin due to potential discoloration.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated hematocrit level. In fluid volume deficit, there is a decrease in blood volume, leading to an increase in the concentration of red blood cells (hematocrit). This is a compensatory mechanism to maintain oxygen delivery. Weight gain (choice
A) and distended neck veins (choice
B) are indicative of fluid volume excess. Shortness of breath (choice
C) is a common symptom of heart failure but not specific to fluid volume deficit.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has anxiety and is taking buspirone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Buspirone can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its potential to lower heart rate. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, which can be dangerous if severe. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client's heart rate regularly when taking buspirone. Hypoglycemia (
A), hypothermia (
C), and hypokalemia (
D) are not typically associated adverse effects of buspirone.
Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for bradycardia in a client taking buspirone.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking warfarin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Melena. Melena indicates gastrointestinal bleeding, which can be a serious side effect of warfarin. It requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications like hemorrhage. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention.
Choice A (Fever) may indicate an infection, but it is not as critical as bleeding.
Choice B (Abdominal cramping) is a common side effect of warfarin and can usually be managed with adjustments in diet or medication.
Choice C (Hair loss) is not typically associated with warfarin use and is a less urgent concern.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving diazepam for moderate (conscious) sedation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess for an adverse reaction to the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's oxygen saturation. When a client is receiving diazepam for sedation, respiratory depression is a potential adverse reaction. Monitoring oxygen saturation allows the nurse to assess for any signs of respiratory compromise. This is crucial as sedative medications can depress the respiratory drive. Auscultating bowel sounds (
B) and checking urinary output (
D) are not directly related to assessing for adverse reactions to diazepam. Monitoring for seizure activity (
A) would be more relevant if the client was receiving an antiepileptic medication. Thus, the most appropriate action to assess for an adverse reaction to diazepam is monitoring the client's oxygen saturation.