ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam B Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for disulfiram for alcohol use disorder. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Avoiding all products containing alcohol, including mouthwash, is critical with disulfiram, as it causes a severe reaction (flushing, nausea, vomiting) when alcohol is consumed, deterring alcohol use.
Choice B is incorrect because disulfiram is typically taken at bedtime to minimize side effects like drowsiness, not in the morning.
Choice C is incorrect because a metallic taste is not a common side effect of disulfiram; it is more associated with metronidazole.
Choice D is incorrect because disulfiram should not be discontinued abruptly without provider guidance, even if drinking resumes, to avoid complications.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Choice A is wrong because atomoxetine is not an anti-anxiety medication, but a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADH
D). It has no effect on reducing anxiety and can cause side effects such as insomnia, nausea, and increased blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong because encouraging the client to watch television is not a therapeutic intervention for a panic attack. Watching television can increase the stimuli in the client's environment, which can worsen anxiety. The nurse should maintain an environment with low stimulation for the client experiencing a panic attack. Dim lighting, few people, and minimal distractions can assist the nurse to decrease the client's level of anxiety.
Choice C is wrong because teaching the client how to meditate is not appropriate during a panic attack. Meditation is a relaxation technique that can be helpful for preventing or reducing anxiety, but it requires concentration and focus, which are impaired in a panic attack. The nurse should teach the client how to meditate when the client is calm and receptive, not when the client is in crisis. A client who is experiencing a panic attack has a very high level of anxiety and a diminished ability to focus. The nurse should stay with the client and remain calm and reassuring during the panic attack. This can help the client feel safe and supported, and reduce the intensity of the anxiety.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has acute kidney injury and a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Preparing the client for hemodialysis is appropriate for a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L (hyperkalemia) in acute kidney injury, as it effectively removes excess potassium when renal function is impaired and other measures are insufficient.
Choice A is wrong because a loop diuretic may not be effective in acute kidney injury due to reduced renal function, and it is not the first-line treatment for severe hyperkalemia.
Choice B is wrong because restricting dietary potassium is a preventive measure but does not address acute hyperkalemia; urgent treatment is needed.
Choice D is wrong because administering potassium chloride would worsen hyperkalemia and is contraindicated.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Full-thickness tissue loss with visible muscle is characteristic of a stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcer, indicating severe tissue damage common in advanced pressure ulcers.
Choice A is incorrect because erythema and intact skin describe a stage 1 pressure ulcer, not a fully developed one.
Choice C is incorrect because blanchable redness over a bony prominence indicates tissue at risk but not yet a pressure ulcer.
Choice D is incorrect because eschar may be present in unstageable pressure ulcers, but full-thickness loss with visible muscle is a more specific finding for stage 3 or 4.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a peptic ulcer and is receiving sucralfate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering sucralfate 1 hour before meals allows it to form a protective barrier over the ulcer site without interference from food, enhancing its effectiveness in treating peptic ulcers.
Choice A is incorrect because taking sucralfate with meals reduces its ability to coat the ulcer due to food in the stomach.
Choice B is incorrect because sucralfate tablets should not be crushed, as this alters their ability to form a protective coating; they should be swallowed whole or dissolved in water if needed.
Choice D is incorrect because mixing sucralfate with an antacid can reduce its efficacy, as antacids alter stomach pH, which is necessary for sucralfate's action.