ATI RN
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ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam B Questions
Extract:
Question
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1 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering insulin glargine at bedtime aligns with its long-acting profile, providing consistent basal insulin coverage over 24 hours for diabetes management.
Choice A is incorrect because rotating injection sites (e.g., abdomen, thighs) prevents lipodystrophy; using the same site each time is not recommended.
Choice B is incorrect because insulin glargine should not be shaken, as it is a clear solution, and shaking can denature the insulin.
Choice D is incorrect because insulin glargine is clear, not cloudy; cloudy insulin (e.g., NPH) requires mixing.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for naltrexone for opioid use disorder. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring for signs of liver dysfunction (e.g., jaundice, abdominal pain) is critical, as naltrexone, an opioid antagonist, can cause hepatotoxicity, requiring regular liver function tests.
Choice A is incorrect because naltrexone should not be started until the client is opioid-free for 7-10 days to avoid precipitating withdrawal.
Choice B is incorrect because naltrexone reduces cravings over time, not immediately.
Choice C is incorrect because naltrexone can be taken with or without food; a high-fat meal is not necessary.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering albuterol via nebulizer is the first action to take during an acute asthma attack, as it rapidly relaxes bronchial smooth muscles, relieving bronchospasm and improving airflow.
Choice B is incorrect because a supine position can worsen breathing; a semi-Fowler's or upright position is preferred to facilitate lung expansion.
Choice C is incorrect because obtaining a peak expiratory flow rate is useful for monitoring but is not the priority during an acute attack.
Choice D is incorrect because administering oxygen is secondary to bronchodilator therapy unless the client has severe hypoxia (e.g., oxygen saturation <90%).
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is receiving haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tremors and muscle stiffness are signs of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), a serious side effect of haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, requiring immediate reporting for possible dose adjustment or antiparkinsonian medication.
Choice A is incorrect because dry mouth is a common, less severe side effect that can be managed with hydration or sugar-free gum.
Choice C is incorrect because weight loss is not typical; haloperidol may cause weight gain.
Choice D is incorrect because sedation is an expected side effect and does not require immediate reporting unless excessive.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of otitis media. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ear pain is a hallmark symptom of otitis media, caused by inflammation and pressure from fluid buildup in the middle ear.
Choice B is incorrect because clear ear drainage is not typical; purulent or bloody drainage may occur if the eardrum ruptures.
Choice C is incorrect because a fever of 37.2°C is not significant; otitis media often causes higher fevers (e.g., >38°
C) in acute cases.
Choice D is incorrect because otitis media typically causes hearing loss due to fluid in the middle ear, not improved hearing.