ATI RN
ATI RN Adult Medical Surgical 2023 Questions Correct Answers Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to obtain a guaiac smear sample from a client for fecal occult blood testing. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Discard samples that contain urine. This is crucial because urine can interfere with the accuracy of the fecal occult blood test results, leading to false positives. By discarding samples that contain urine, the nurse ensures the reliability of the test.
A: Taking the sample from the outer edge of formed stool is not necessary for a guaiac smear sample.
B: Wearing sterile gloves is important for infection control but not specifically for collecting a guaiac smear sample.
C: Collecting three samples from a single bowel movement is not standard practice for fecal occult blood testing and may not be necessary.
E, F, G: No further options provided.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Photophobia. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is a classic symptom of meningitis due to the irritation of the meninges causing increased sensitivity to light. This occurs because the inflamed meninges lead to stimulation of the nerves around the brain, resulting in discomfort when exposed to light.
Bradycardia (
B) is not typically associated with meningitis. Intermittent headache (
C) is vague and can be present in various conditions. Petechiae on the chest (
D) are more commonly seen in conditions like meningococcal meningitis.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume a diet that is high in calories. Patients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the increased work of breathing. Providing a high-calorie diet helps maintain energy levels and prevent weight loss.
Choice B is incorrect because adequate hydration is crucial to help thin mucus and make it easier to clear from the airways.
Choice C is incorrect as strenuous exercise can exacerbate COPD symptoms; moderate exercise is recommended.
Choice D is incorrect because carbohydrates are an essential energy source and reducing intake can lead to increased fatigue in COPD patients.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and develops respiratory depression after receiving morphine for pain control. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids, including respiratory depression.
Therefore, the nurse should expect the provider to prescribe naloxone to counteract the respiratory depression caused by morphine. Flumazenil (
A) is a benzodiazepine antagonist and would not be effective in this situation. Calcium gluconate (
B) is used to treat calcium deficiencies and would not address respiratory depression. Diphenhydramine (
C) is an antihistamine and not indicated for reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following equipment should the nurse place in the client's room?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oral airway. During a seizure, a client may experience difficulty breathing due to their airway being obstructed. Placing an oral airway helps maintain a clear airway, ensuring adequate oxygenation. NG tube (
A) is not relevant to managing seizures.
Tongue blade (
B) can cause injury during a seizure. Wrist restraints (
C) are not appropriate and can increase the risk of injury.