ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam -Nurselytic

Questions 66

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ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions

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Question 1 of 5

A nurse is preparing to initiate IV therapy for a client. Which of the following sites should the nurse use to place the peripheral IV catheter?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nondominant dorsal venous arch. This site is preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement due to the larger vein diameter, ease of access, and reduced risk of complications like nerve damage or infiltration. The nondominant side is chosen to prevent disruption of daily activities. The dorsal venous arch is a superficial vein that is easily visible and palpable, making it suitable for successful cannulation. It also allows for optimal flow rate and minimizes the risk of phlebitis.

Choices B, C, and D are not ideal for various reasons such as smaller vein size, increased risk of nerve damage, and difficulty in accessing or securing the catheter.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking an osmotic laxative. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of fluid volume deficit?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oliguria. Osmotic laxatives, such as lactulose or polyethylene glycol, work by drawing water into the colon to soften the stool. If a client on osmotic laxatives is experiencing oliguria (decreased urine output), it can be a sign of fluid volume deficit due to the body trying to conserve water. Nausea (
A) is a common side effect of osmotic laxatives but not a specific indicator of fluid volume deficit. Weight gain (
B) is not associated with fluid volume deficit. Headache (
C) can be caused by various factors and is not a specific sign of fluid volume deficit.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking amitriptyline. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A.
Total bilirubin levels should be reported because amitriptyline can cause hepatotoxicity. Elevated bilirubin could indicate liver damage. Option B, potassium level, is not typically affected by amitriptyline. Option C, hematocrit, and option D, WBC count, are not directly related to amitriptyline use. Options E, F, and G are not provided. In summary, the nurse should report elevated total bilirubin levels due to potential hepatotoxicity from amitriptyline.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking lithium and reports starting a new exercise program. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. When a client taking lithium starts a new exercise program, they may sweat more, leading to sodium loss. Hyponatremia is characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, which can be exacerbated by the diuretic effect of lithium. This can result in symptoms such as confusion, muscle cramps, weakness, and seizures. Assessing for hyponatremia is crucial to prevent complications.

Incorrect choices:
A: Hypocalcemia - Not directly related to lithium or exercise.
B: Hypokalemia - More commonly associated with diuretic use or excessive potassium loss.
D: Hypomagnesemia - More commonly seen in alcoholism or malnutrition.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Phenytoin can cause hypotension as an adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. The drug can cause a decrease in blood pressure, leading to symptoms such as dizziness and lightheadedness. This adverse effect is important for the nurse to recognize as it can potentially lead to complications such as falls in the client.

A: Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
B: Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of phenytoin.
C: Red man syndrome is associated with vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Summary: Phenytoin is more likely to cause hypotension as an adverse effect, rather than hypoglycemia, bradycardia, or red man syndrome.

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