ATI RN
ATI Capstone Exam 2 Final Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to infuse a 250-mL unit of packed RBCs over 2 hours. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtts/mL. The nurse should adjust the flow rate to deliver how many drops per minute?
Correct Answer: 31
Rationale:
To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute for the infusion of packed RBCs, we first need to determine the total number of drops to be infused over 2 hours.
Step 1: Calculate the total drops in 2 hours:
2 hours = 120 minutes
250 mL x 15 gtts/mL = 3750 drops
3750 drops ÷ 120 minutes = 31.25 drops/minute
Step 2: The correct answer is rounded down to 31 drops per minute as IV infusion sets typically do not allow for fractions of drops.
Summary:
-
Choice A: Incorrect. The correct flow rate is not 60 drops per minute as that would be too fast.
-
Choices B-G: Irrelevant as they do not follow the calculation process required to determine the correct flow rate.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing a community presentation about repetitive motion injuries. Which of the following occupations should the nurse identify as at risk?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assembly line worker. Assembly line workers are at risk for repetitive motion injuries due to the continuous and repetitive nature of their tasks, such as repetitive lifting and reaching. This constant movement can lead to musculoskeletal strain and injuries over time. Nursing assistants (choice
A) are also at risk due to tasks involving lifting and transferring patients. Truck drivers (choice
C) may experience musculoskeletal issues but are not primarily at risk for repetitive motion injuries. Elementary school teachers (choice
D) may experience repetitive tasks but are not as consistently exposed to the same level of repetitive motions as assembly line workers.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving opioid epidural analgesia during labor. Which of the following findings is the nurse’s priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood pressure 80/56 mm Hg. This finding is the priority because it indicates hypotension, a common side effect of opioid epidural analgesia. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion and compromise fetal well-being. The other options are less urgent: A slight fever (
A) is common with epidural analgesia, weakness of lower extremities (
B) is an expected side effect, and itching (
C) is a common minor side effect.
Therefore, monitoring and addressing the client's low blood pressure is the priority to prevent potential harm to both the mother and the baby.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for chlorpromazine. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I may have a dry mouth while taking this medication." This is correct because chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication known to cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic properties. Dry mouth is a potential adverse effect that the client should be aware of.
Choice B is incorrect because chlorpromazine does not typically cause increased urination.
Choice C is incorrect because chlorpromazine is not indicated for smoking cessation.
Choice D is incorrect because flu-like symptoms are not a common side effect of chlorpromazine.
Question 5 of 5
A volunteer assigned to the pediatric unit reports to the charge nurse for an assignment. Which of the following assignments is unsafe for the volunteer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transporting a school-age client in traction. This assignment is unsafe because moving a client in traction requires specialized training and skill to prevent injury.
Choices B, C, and D involve activities that do not pose a risk to the volunteer or the client. Reading to a preschool client, playing a computer game, and rocking an infant are appropriate and safe interactions for a volunteer in a pediatric unit.