ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 V Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Keep the solution refrigerated until 1 hr before infusion.
Total parenteral nutrition solutions should be stored in the refrigerator to maintain stability and prevent bacterial growth. By keeping the solution refrigerated until 1 hour before infusion, the nurse ensures that the solution remains safe for administration.
Incorrect choices:
A: Obtaining the client's weight three times a week is unrelated to the administration of total parenteral nutrition.
C: Changing the solution every 36 hours is not necessary and may lead to unnecessary waste.
D: Checking the client's WBC count daily is not directly related to the administration of total parenteral nutrition.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following factors predisposes this client to developing digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Taking a high-ceiling diuretic. High-ceiling diuretics, like furosemide, can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia enhances the toxic effects of digoxin on the heart by increasing its binding and potentiating its action. Additionally, low potassium levels can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias, which are a common manifestation of digoxin toxicity.
Choices A, B, and D do not directly increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. A HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, prolapsed mitral valve, and COPD do not have a direct pharmacological interaction with digoxin that predisposes the client to toxicity.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for cefaclor. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of an allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pruritus. Pruritus, or itching, is a common symptom of an allergic reaction to medications like cefaclor. It is caused by the release of histamine in response to the allergen. Hematuria (
A) is blood in the urine, not typically associated with allergic reactions. Tremor (
B) and slurred speech (
D) are neurological symptoms, not typical of allergic reactions.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has received propofol during a colonoscopy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following as an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decrease in respiratory rate. Propofol is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can cause respiratory depression as a common adverse effect. It works by depressing the central nervous system, leading to a decrease in respiratory rate. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation.
Incorrect choices:
B: Increase in bowel function - Propofol does not affect bowel function.
C: Decrease in body temperature - Propofol may cause hypotension but not a decrease in body temperature.
D: Increase in heart rate - Propofol typically causes a decrease in heart rate due to its sedative effects, not an increase.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving ondansetron IV. Which of the following findings is an indication that the ondansetron is effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased nausea. Ondansetron is an antiemetic medication used to prevent nausea and vomiting. A decrease in nausea indicates the medication is effective in managing the client's symptoms. Increased urinary output (choice
A) is not necessarily related to the effectiveness of ondansetron. Reduced dizziness (choice
B) may be a side effect of the medication but does not directly indicate its effectiveness against nausea. Absence of peripheral neuropathy (choice
D) is not a common effect of ondansetron and is not a reliable indicator of its effectiveness.