ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2023/24 1st Attempt & Retake Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer metronidazole 2 g PO to a client who has trichomoniasis. Available is metronidazole 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 tablets.
To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the total dose by the dose per tablet: 2000 mg / 250 mg = 8 tablets. The nurse should administer 8 tablets to achieve the prescribed 2 g dose. Option B (4 tablets) is incorrect as it would only provide half the required dose. Option C (2 tablets) and D (1 tablet) are also incorrect as they would provide even less than half the required dose.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is breastfeeding her newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allow the baby to feed at least every 3 hr. Breastfeeding newborns frequently helps establish milk supply, prevents engorgement, and ensures the baby gets enough nutrients.
Choice A is too limited and may not provide adequate feeding.
Choice B is incorrect as newborns should only be given breast milk or formula, no water.
Choice C is too vague and might not indicate adequate feeding.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postpartum and breastfeeding her newborn. The client reports sore nipples. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the newborn's latch while breastfeeding. The nurse should assess the newborn's latch to ensure proper attachment to the breast, which can alleviate sore nipples. This step is crucial in addressing the root cause of the issue. Waiting 4 hours between feedings (
A) can lead to engorgement and affect milk supply. Limiting breastfeeding time to 5 minutes (
C) may not be sufficient for adequate feeding. Offering supplemental formula (
D) can interfere with establishing breastfeeding and may not address the underlying latch issue.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. They are experiencing contractions 2 to 3 min apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that their cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following phases of labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Active phase of labor. At 9 cm dilation, the client is transitioning from the latent phase to the active phase. In the active phase, the cervix typically dilates from 6 to 10 cm. The client's contractions are close together and long-lasting, indicating active labor. Rectal pressure is common during the active phase as the baby descends further. The passive descent (
A) phase occurs later in labor when the cervix is fully dilated, and the client is ready to push. Early phase (
C) is characterized by slow cervical dilation from 0 to 6 cm. Descent (
D) phase is not a recognized phase of labor.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is 3 days postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cool, clammy skin. This finding could indicate hypovolemic shock, which is a serious postpartum complication requiring immediate medical attention. Cool, clammy skin suggests poor perfusion and potential hemorrhage. Reporting this to the provider promptly can help prevent further complications.
Choices B, C, and D are within the expected range for a postpartum client and do not indicate a need for immediate intervention. Lochia serosa is the normal vaginal discharge after childbirth. A heart rate of 89/min and blood pressure of 120/70 mm Hg are also within normal limits for a postpartum client.