ATI RN
RN Maternal Nursing OB Newborn 2023 2024 Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer metronidazole 2 g PO to a client who has trichomoniasis. Available is metronidazole 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 tablets.
To calculate the correct dosage, divide the total dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, 2 g = 2000 mg, and each tablet is 250 mg.
Therefore, 2000 mg ÷ 250 mg = 8 tablets. This ensures the client receives the correct dosage for effective treatment.
Choice B (4 tablets) would result in an underdose, C (2 tablets) would be half the required dose, and D (1 tablet) would be significantly lower than the needed dose, leading to ineffective treatment.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing the newborn of a client who took a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) during pregnancy. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an indication of withdrawal from an SSRI?
Correct Answer: C, D
Rationale: The correct manifestations of SSRI withdrawal in a newborn are bradypnea (
C) and vomiting (
D). SSRI use during pregnancy can lead to neonatal withdrawal symptoms due to drug exposure in utero. Bradypnea is a common withdrawal symptom characterized by slow breathing rate in newborns. Vomiting is another withdrawal symptom that can occur in newborns exposed to SSRIs. Large for gestational age (
A) and hyperglycemia (
B) are not typical manifestations of SSRI withdrawal.
Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for bradypnea and vomiting as signs of SSRI withdrawal in the newborn.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse in a family planning clinic is caring for a client who requests an oral contraceptive. Which of the following findings in the client’s history should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: The correct answer is A, B, D. Cholecystitis is a contraindication due to increased risk of gallbladder disease. Hypertension is a contraindication as estrogen in oral contraceptives can elevate blood pressure. Migraine headaches with aura are contraindicated due to increased risk of stroke. Human papillomavirus is not a contraindication. It's important to consider individual health factors for each client when prescribing oral contraceptives.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a newborn. Which of the following sites should the nurse select?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vastus lateralis. For newborns, the vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for intramuscular injections due to its larger muscle mass and reduced risk of injury to nerves and blood vessels. It is located on the thigh, making it easily accessible and safe for administration. The deltoid muscle (choice
C) is not recommended for newborns due to insufficient muscle mass. The dorsogluteal site (choice
B) is not recommended for infants due to the proximity to the sciatic nerve. The rectus femoris (choice
D) is not typically used for IM injections in newborns.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is postpartum following a cesarean birth. The client states, 'I feel like I have to urinate but I can’t go.' Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assist the client to ambulate to the bathroom. This action helps in promoting normal voiding patterns post-cesarean birth. Ambulation can aid in relieving pressure on the bladder, stimulating the urge to urinate, and facilitating the flow of urine. It also promotes circulation, which can help in reducing the risk of urinary retention.
Choice B: Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should not be the initial intervention as it carries a risk of introducing infection and may not be necessary at this point.
Choice C: Performing a bladder scan can be considered if the client is unable to void after ambulation and other interventions have been attempted.
Choice D: Administering a diuretic is not appropriate in this situation as the client is experiencing difficulty in urinating rather than retaining excessive urine.
In summary, assisting the client to ambulate to the bathroom is the most appropriate initial action to address the client's complaint and promote normal voiding.