ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Exam 2024 With NGN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the medication outside the 5 cm (2 in) radius of the umbilicus. This is important because injecting heparin too close to the umbilicus can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising. The subcutaneous injection site should be rotated to prevent tissue damage, and the abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections. Injecting heparin at least 5 cm away from the umbilicus helps ensure proper absorption and reduces the risk of complications. Aspirating for blood return (choice
B) is not necessary for subcutaneous injections. Rubbing vigorously after the injection (choice
C) can cause tissue irritation and should be avoided. Placing a pressure dressing on the injection site (choice
D) is not needed for subcutaneous injections.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the medication outside the 5 cm (2 in) radius of the umbilicus. This is important because injecting heparin too close to the umbilicus can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising. The subcutaneous injection site should be rotated to prevent tissue damage, and the abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections. Injecting heparin at least 5 cm away from the umbilicus helps ensure proper absorption and reduces the risk of complications. Aspirating for blood return (choice
B) is not necessary for subcutaneous injections. Rubbing vigorously after the injection (choice
C) can cause tissue irritation and should be avoided. Placing a pressure dressing on the injection site (choice
D) is not needed for subcutaneous injections.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client 1 hr after administering morphine for pain. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as the best indication that the morphine has been effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The client rates pain as 3 on a scale from 0 to 10. This is the best indication that the morphine has been effective because pain relief is the primary goal of administering morphine. A pain rating of 3 indicates a decrease in pain intensity, showing that the medication is working.
A: The client's vital signs being within normal limits does not directly indicate the effectiveness of pain management.
B: The client not requesting additional medication could be due to various reasons other than effective pain relief.
C: The client resting comfortably with eyes closed may suggest relaxation but does not necessarily reflect pain relief.
In summary, the other choices do not directly measure pain relief, unlike the client's self-reported pain rating.
Question 4 of 5
For which of the following client outcomes should the nurse administer chlordiazepoxide to a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prevent delirium tremens. Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine used to manage acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including preventing the development of delirium tremens, a severe, life-threatening complication. It works by calming the central nervous system and reducing the risk of seizures and hallucinations associated with alcohol withdrawal.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as chlordiazepoxide does not directly address diaphoresis, maintaining abstinence, or lessening cravings. These outcomes are more related to behavioral and psychological interventions rather than pharmacological management of alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that a client with myasthenia gravis taking neostigmine is experiencing an adverse effect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Miosis. Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to treat myasthenia gravis by increasing acetylcholine levels. Miosis, or pinpoint pupils, is a common adverse effect of cholinergic stimulation. Tachycardia (
A) is not typically associated with neostigmine use and can be a sign of sympathetic overactivity. Oliguria (
B) is not a common adverse effect of neostigmine and can be indicative of kidney issues. Xerostomia (
C) is dry mouth and is more commonly seen with anticholinergic medications.