ATI RN
RN VATI Pharmacology S 2019 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer exenatide for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following routes of administration should nurse plan to use?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Subcutaneous. Exenatide is typically administered subcutaneously because it is a peptide-based medication that needs to be absorbed slowly for optimal effects. Subcutaneous injections allow for a slow and steady release of the medication into the bloodstream, which helps in regulating blood sugar levels effectively. Oral administration is not suitable for exenatide as it would be broken down in the digestive system. Intramuscular and intravenous routes are not recommended for exenatide administration due to the risk of erratic absorption and potential adverse effects. Subcutaneous administration ensures a more predictable and consistent absorption rate, making it the most appropriate route for exenatide.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription to receive a continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Check the client's blood glucose level regularly. This is essential as TPN is a high-calorie, nutrient-dense solution that can increase the risk of hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose levels helps the nurse assess the client's response to TPN and adjust the infusion rate accordingly to prevent complications.
Option A is incorrect because changing the TPN infusion tubing once every 3 days is not a priority in this situation. Option C is incorrect as TPN should be administered through a central venous catheter, not a peripheral IV catheter. Option D is incorrect as monitoring the client's weight every 3 days is not as crucial as monitoring blood glucose levels when on TPN.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel after undergoing coronary artery stenting. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The client is taking ginkgo biloba. Ginkgo biloba is an herbal supplement that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with clopidogrel, a blood thinner commonly prescribed after coronary artery stenting. The nurse should report this finding to the provider to prevent potential interactions and adverse effects.
A: Acetaminophen is a common pain reliever that does not significantly interact with clopidogrel.
B: Valerian is an herb used for sleep and anxiety, but it does not have a significant interaction with clopidogrel.
C: Vitamin B6 is a water-soluble vitamin that is generally safe to take with clopidogrel and does not pose a significant risk of interaction.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for promethazine tablets. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "The medication can cause drowsiness." This is the correct answer because promethazine is known to have sedative effects and can cause drowsiness as a common side effect. This statement indicates that the client understands one of the primary side effects of the medication.
A: Incorrect. Promethazine typically does not cause diarrhea.
B: Incorrect. Promethazine does not commonly cause increased salivation.
C: Incorrect. Promethazine can cause pupil dilation rather than constriction.
Overall, choice D is the most appropriate as it aligns with the expected side effect profile of promethazine.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who reports feeling dizzy while getting out of bed. The nurse suspects orthostatic hypotension related to a medication the client is taking Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as likely causing this adverse effect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by causing increased urine production, leading to fluid loss and potential dehydration, which can result in orthostatic hypotension. This effect is more pronounced when the client changes positions quickly, such as getting out of bed.
A: Dabigatran is an anticoagulant and does not typically cause orthostatic hypotension.
B: Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement and does not usually cause orthostatic hypotension.
C: Isoproterenol is a beta-adrenergic agonist that can actually increase blood pressure, not cause orthostatic hypotension.
In summary, Furosemide is the correct answer because it is a diuretic that can lead to dehydration and orthostatic hypotension, while the other options do not typically cause this adverse effect.