ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: A: Apply firm pressure to the injection site following administration.
Rationale: Applying firm pressure to the injection site following administration of enoxaparin helps minimize the risk of bleeding, as enoxaparin is an anticoagulant medication. This pressure promotes clot formation and reduces the likelihood of bruising or hematoma formation at the injection site.
Summary of other choices:
B: Administer the medication into the client's muscle - Incorrect. Enoxaparin is a subcutaneous medication, not meant for intramuscular administration.
C: Expel the air bubble from the syringe prior to injection - Good practice but not directly related to the administration of enoxaparin.
D: Insert the syringe needle halfway into the client's skin - Incorrect. The needle should be fully inserted for proper subcutaneous injection.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is reviewing a client's 0800 laboratory values at 1100. The nurse notes that the client received heparin at 1000. Which of the following laboratory values warrants an incident report?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: ePTT 90 seconds. This value indicates a higher than normal clotting time, which could potentially lead to bleeding complications due to excessive anticoagulation from heparin. The other values (B, C,
D) are within normal ranges and do not indicate an immediate risk or adverse outcome related to heparin administration. An incident report is necessary to document and address the elevated ePTT to ensure appropriate interventions are taken to prevent harm to the patient.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and reports pain. 1 hr after administration of prescribed morphine 10 mg IV. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fentanyl transmucosal. Fentanyl is a potent opioid used for severe pain, and transmucosal administration provides rapid relief. Naloxone (
A) is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose, not for pain management. Morphine tablet (
B) is not indicated for immediate relief after IV morphine. Lidocaine patch (
C) is used for localized pain, not post-IV opioid pain control.
Therefore, fentanyl transmucosal (
D) is the most appropriate choice for rapid pain relief in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who reports taking over-the-counter antacids. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation. Hypercalcemia can result from excessive intake of antacids containing calcium carbonate. High levels of calcium in the blood can lead to constipation due to its inhibitory effect on smooth muscle contraction in the intestinal tract. Decreased urine output (choice
B) is more indicative of dehydration or renal issues. Positive Trousseau's sign (choice
C) is associated with hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Headache (choice
D) is a nonspecific symptom and not a typical manifestation of hypercalcemia.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The provider's prescription reads, 'Potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 min.' Which of the following reasons should the nurse clarify this prescription with the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Potassium chloride infusion rate should not exceed 10 mEq/hr to prevent hyperkalemia and cardiac arrhythmias.
2. In this case, 30 mEq in 100 mL over 30 min exceeds the safe rate.
3. Clarification is needed to adjust the infusion rate to avoid potential harm.
4. Other choices are incorrect as dextrose dilution, different formulations, and IV bolus are not the primary concerns.