ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 V Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin to a client. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to administration?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: PT (Prothrombin Time). Prothrombin Time measures the clotting ability of the blood, which is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clotting factors dependent on Vitamin K, such as prothrombin. By reviewing the PT before administering warfarin, the nurse can ensure the client's blood is clotting appropriately.
A: PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) measures the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is not specific to warfarin therapy.
B:
Total iron-binding capacity is unrelated to warfarin therapy.
C: WBC (White Blood Cell count) is not necessary to review before administering warfarin.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for cefaclor. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of an allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pruritus. Pruritus, or itching, is a common symptom of an allergic reaction to medications like cefaclor. It is caused by the release of histamine in response to the allergen. Hematuria (
A) is blood in the urine, not typically associated with allergic reactions. Tremor (
B) and slurred speech (
D) are neurological symptoms, not typical of allergic reactions.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing the vital signs of a client who is taking amiodarone. The nurse should anticipate which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its action on the heart's electrical conduction system. This can lead to a slow heart rate, which the nurse should monitor for. The other choices are incorrect because hypertension (
A) is not a common adverse effect of amiodarone, fever (
C) is not typically associated with this medication, and bradypnea (
D) refers to slow breathing rate, which is not a typical adverse effect of amiodarone.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing severe vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prochlorperazine. This medication is an antiemetic, which helps to alleviate vomiting. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, reducing nausea and vomiting. Propafenone (
A) is an antiarrhythmic drug, Metformin (
B) is used for diabetes, and Simvastatin (
D) is a statin for cholesterol. These medications do not treat vomiting. It is important for the nurse to select the appropriate medication to address the client's symptoms effectively.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following factors predisposes this client to developing digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Taking a high-ceiling diuretic. High-ceiling diuretics, like furosemide, can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia enhances the toxic effects of digoxin on the heart by increasing its binding and potentiating its action. Additionally, low potassium levels can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias, which are a common manifestation of digoxin toxicity.
Choices A, B, and D do not directly increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. A HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, prolapsed mitral valve, and COPD do not have a direct pharmacological interaction with digoxin that predisposes the client to toxicity.