ATI RN
ATI Capstone Exam 1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer 40 mg of furosemide IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
Correct Answer: 4
Rationale:
Correct Answer: A nurse should administer 4 mL of furosemide per dose.
To calculate this, divide the total dose (40 mg) by the concentration (10 mg/mL). 40 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 4 mL. This ensures the correct dosage is administered.
Choice B: Incorrect. This choice does not follow the correct calculation method and does not provide the accurate dosage.
Choice C: Incorrect. This choice does not consider the concentration of the medication and does not provide the correct amount to administer.
Choice D: Incorrect. This choice does not involve the necessary division of the total dose by the concentration, resulting in an incorrect answer.
Choice E: Incorrect. This choice does not show a clear calculation method or consideration of the medication concentration.
Choice F: Incorrect. This choice lacks any calculation or explanation, making it an insufficient answer.
Choice G: Incorrect. This choice does not provide any reasoning or calculation to support the amount to administer, making it an inadequate
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is presenting a community-based program about HIV and AIDS. A client asks the nurse to describe the initial symptoms experienced with HIV infection. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the explanation of initial symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flu-like symptoms and night sweats. Initial symptoms of HIV infection often present as flu-like symptoms such as fever, fatigue, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, and night sweats. This is known as acute retroviral syndrome and occurs within the first few weeks after exposure to the virus. These symptoms are nonspecific and can easily be mistaken for other common illnesses. Fungal and bacterial infections (
B), Pneumocystis lung infection (
C), and Kaposi’s sarcoma (
D) are not initial symptoms of HIV infection. Fungal and bacterial infections typically occur in later stages of HIV when the immune system is severely compromised. Pneumocystis lung infection and Kaposi’s sarcoma are opportunistic infections seen in advanced stages of HIV, usually when the CD4 count is significantly low.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing care for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and is about to progress from a clear liquid diet to full liquids. Which of the following items should the nurse tell the client he may now request to have on his meal tray?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Skim milk. Skim milk is allowed on a full liquid diet as it is easily digested and provides essential nutrients. It is also a good source of protein and calcium, important for healing post-surgery. Chicken broth (
A) and flavored gelatin (
B) are typically allowed on a clear liquid diet but may not be suitable for a full liquid diet. Cranberry juice (
C) is acidic and may be too harsh on the stomach post-surgery.
Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to choose skim milk for his meal tray to support healing and recovery.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the PACU after a traditional cholecystectomy. In which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Semi-Fowler’s position. Placing the client in Semi-Fowler’s position after a cholecystectomy helps to promote optimal lung expansion and oxygenation. This position reduces pressure on the diaphragm and abdomen, allowing for improved respiratory function. Additionally, it helps prevent complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia. Supported Sims position (
A) is used for enemas, not post-cholecystectomy care. Dorsal recumbent position (
C) is for pelvic exams, not indicated here. Prone position (
D) would put pressure on the abdomen and is contraindicated post-cholecystectomy.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has named a person to serve as his health care proxy. The client states he needs clarification about this type of advance directive. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for clarification?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I have to choose a family member as my health proxy." This statement indicates a need for clarification because it is incorrect. The client can choose any competent adult to be their health care proxy, not just a family member. This misconception may limit the client's options and understanding of their rights.
Incorrect choices:
A: This statement is correct as the health care proxy only goes into effect when the client is incapable of making decisions.
C: This statement is correct as the client can change their designated health care proxy at any time.
D: This statement is correct as the health care proxy will make end-of-life choices if the client becomes incapacitated.