ATI RN
ATI Medsurg Proctored Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing a client for a radiation treatment who is postoperative following a mastectomy. The nurse should inform the client to expect which of the following adverse effects from the treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fatigue. Radiation treatment can cause fatigue as it affects healthy cells in addition to cancer cells, leading to increased tiredness. Hair loss (
A) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy, while nausea and vomiting (
B) are typical side effects of chemotherapy or certain medications. Skin irritation (
D) is a common side effect of radiation treatment, but fatigue is the primary adverse effect in this scenario due to its impact on overall energy levels.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has had a spinal cord injury at the level of the T2-T3 vertebrae. When planning care, the nurse should anticipate which of the following types of disability?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Paraplegia. Damage at the T2-T3 vertebrae level affects the lower part of the body, resulting in paralysis of the legs and potentially part of the trunk (paraplegia). This injury does not affect the arms or hands, ruling out tetraplegia (
B) and quadriplegia (
C). Hemiplegia (
D) refers to paralysis on one side of the body only, which is not the case here. Other choices are not applicable.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who recently had surgery for insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. MRI of the chest should be clarified because the magnetic field can interfere with the function of the pacemaker, potentially causing harm to the patient. An electrocardiogram, chest X-ray, and echocardiogram are safe imaging tests that do not interfere with the pacemaker.
Therefore, D is the correct answer that should be clarified to ensure patient safety.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following values should give the nurse the best indication of the client's renal function?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Creatinine is a waste product produced by muscles and filtered out by the kidneys. In clients with SLE, renal involvement is common. Elevated serum creatinine levels indicate impaired renal function, as the kidneys are not effectively filtering out waste products. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps assess renal function and detect kidney damage early.
Choices B, C, D, and E are incorrect as they do not directly reflect renal function. Serum potassium levels (
B) are more indicative of electrolyte balance, white blood cell count (
C) indicates immune response, and hemoglobin level (
D) reflects oxygen-carrying capacity.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is admitting a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pantoprazole 80 mg IV bolus twice daily. In acute pancreatitis, gastric acid hypersecretion can occur, leading to exacerbation of pancreatic inflammation. Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that helps reduce gastric acid secretion, which can alleviate pancreatic irritation. IV administration ensures rapid onset of action.
B: Furosemide is a diuretic used for conditions like heart failure or edema, not indicated for acute pancreatitis.
C: Lactulose is a laxative used for hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels, not indicated for acute pancreatitis.
D: Acetaminophen is a pain reliever, but it does not address the underlying cause of acute pancreatitis.