ATI RN
ATI N303 Pharmacology Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is planning to administer ceftriaxone IM to an adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the medication using a Z-track technique. When administering ceftriaxone IM, using a Z-track technique helps prevent leakage of the medication into subcutaneous tissues, reducing irritation and pain at the injection site. The Z-track method involves pulling the skin laterally before administering the medication and releasing it after injection to create a seal that prevents medication leakage. Using a 5/8-inch needle (choice
A) may not be long enough for IM injection. Administering in the deltoid muscle (choice
C) is not recommended for ceftriaxone due to the volume of the medication. Administering at a 45° angle (choice
D) is not necessary for IM injections and may not be appropriate for ceftriaxone.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving continuous IV therapy through a peripheral IV. The catheter site is cool and taut, and there is IV fluid leaking. The nurse should identify that the client has manifestations of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Infiltration. Infiltration occurs when IV fluid leaks into surrounding tissues, causing the catheter site to be cool and taut. This can lead to discomfort, swelling, and fluid accumulation at the site. Phlebitis (choice
A) is inflammation of the vein, presenting with redness and warmth along the vein. Circulatory overload (choice
B) results from excessive IV fluid administration, causing symptoms like dyspnea and hypertension. Infection (choice
C) manifests with fever, redness, and purulent drainage at the site. In this scenario, the symptoms described align with infiltration, making it the correct choice.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving dopamine IV to treat left ventricular failure. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is having a therapeutic effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systolic blood pressure is increased. Dopamine is a medication commonly used to treat left ventricular failure by increasing cardiac output and improving blood pressure. When dopamine is effective, it should lead to an increase in systolic blood pressure as it helps to improve the heart's pumping ability. This indicates that the medication is improving the client's condition.
Other choices are incorrect because a reduction in cardiac output (
A) would not be indicative of therapeutic effect, an increased apical heart rate (
C) could indicate increased workload on the heart rather than therapeutic effect, and reduced urine output (
D) could signal inadequate perfusion rather than improvement.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing an older adult client who is receiving digoxin. The nurse should recognize that which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anorexia. Anorexia is a common manifestation of digoxin toxicity due to its effects on the gastrointestinal system. Digoxin toxicity can lead to nausea, vomiting, and anorexia, which can result in weight loss and electrolyte imbalances. Ataxia (
A) is more commonly associated with cerebellar disorders, not digoxin toxicity. Photosensitivity (
B) is not a known symptom of digoxin toxicity. Jaundice (
D) is a sign of liver dysfunction, not digoxin toxicity.
Therefore, the most appropriate finding to indicate digoxin toxicity in this scenario is anorexia.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a client who has atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin. For which of the following results should the nurse notify the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT 45 seconds. In a client taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, a prolonged PT indicates a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The therapeutic range for PT for clients on warfarin is typically around 1.5-2 times the control value.
Therefore, a PT of 45 seconds is likely above the therapeutic range and requires immediate provider notification to adjust the warfarin dosage.
Other choices are within normal range for a client on warfarin therapy:
A: Platelets 190,000/mm3 - within normal range
C: Hgb 16 g/dL - within normal range
D: Hct 44% - within normal range
Therefore, these results do not pose an immediate risk to the client and do not require notification to the provider.