ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 III Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following client's medications should be monitored by the nurse for hearing loss related to a medication interaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Furosemide and amikacin. Furosemide is a loop diuretic known to cause ototoxicity, including hearing loss. Amikacin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic also associated with ototoxicity. When combined, they can potentiate each other's ototoxic effects, increasing the risk of hearing loss. Monitoring for any signs of hearing impairment is crucial.
Incorrect choices:
A: Propranolol and raloxifene - These medications are not known to cause hearing loss.
B: Losartan and atorvastatin - These medications are not associated with hearing loss.
D: Digoxin and levothyroxine - These medications are not typically linked to hearing loss.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition and identifies that the client has hypoglycemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer IV dextrose. Hypoglycemia is a potential complication of parenteral nutrition. Administering IV dextrose is the appropriate action to increase the client's blood sugar levels quickly. Discontinuing the infusion (choice
A) would further decrease glucose supply. Warming formula (choice
C) is not directly related to treating hypoglycemia. Obtaining arterial blood gases (choice
D) is not necessary for managing hypoglycemia.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim 5 mcg/kg/day subcutaneous to a client who weighs 143 lb. How many mcg should the nurse administer per day? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
To calculate the dose of filgrastim for the client, convert their weight from pounds to kilograms (1 kg = 2.2 lb). 143 lb / 2.2 = 65 kg.
Then multiply the weight in kg by the prescribed dose of 5 mcg/kg/day: 65 kg * 5 mcg/kg/day = 325 mcg/day.
Therefore, the correct answer is A: 325 mcg/day.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the correct dose based on the client's weight and the prescribed dosage of filgrastim.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exercise caution when changing positions. This is important to prevent dizziness and potential falls due to captopril's tendency to lower blood pressure. A: Taking extra potassium can lead to hyperkalemia, a dangerous side effect. B: Monitoring pulse rate is not necessary for captopril. C: Increasing sodium intake contradicts the medication's purpose of lowering blood pressure. E, F, and G are not applicable.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: WBC count. Filgrastim is a medication that stimulates the production of white blood cells (WBCs). Monitoring the WBC count is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment, as an increase in WBC count indicates that the medication is working to boost the immune system. Monitoring potassium level (
A), BUN (
B), and INR (
C) are not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of filgrastim treatment. Potassium level is typically monitored for cardiac function, BUN for kidney function, and INR for monitoring anticoagulant therapy.
Therefore, the WBC count is the most appropriate laboratory value to assess the response to filgrastim.