ATI RN
ATI Capstone Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who has pernicious anemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin B12 injections. Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor necessary for Vitamin B12 absorption. Vitamin B12 injections bypass the need for intrinsic factor, ensuring the client receives an adequate amount of the vitamin. Iron supplements (
B) are not effective in treating pernicious anemia as it is not related to iron deficiency. Vitamin B supplements (
A) may not be absorbed effectively due to the lack of intrinsic factor. Blood transfusions (
D) may be used for severe cases of anemia, but they do not address the underlying Vitamin B12 deficiency in pernicious anemia.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for an 84-year-old male client in the medical unit. The client was admitted from a provider’s office with complaints of fatigue, dizziness, and shortness of breath. The nurse reviews the client’s medical records to prepare the client’s plan of care. Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: The correct answer is A,C,D,E. Firstly, the client is likely experiencing anemia based on the symptoms of fatigue, dizziness, and shortness of breath.
Therefore, administering prescribed medications (
C) to address the anemia is crucial. Teaching the client about the condition (
A) helps improve understanding and compliance. Monitoring vital signs (
D) is essential to track the client's response to treatment. Scheduling a follow-up appointment with a specialist (E) ensures ongoing evaluation and management. Encouraging intake of a low-sodium diet (
B) is not directly related to anemia and may not be the priority in this case. Blood pressure (G) monitoring is important but not specific to anemia.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because yellow-green drainage on the surgical incision can indicate an infection, which is a critical postoperative complication that requires immediate attention from the provider. This finding suggests the presence of pus or other infectious material in the wound, increasing the risk of further complications like wound dehiscence or systemic infection. Reporting this to the provider promptly allows for timely intervention such as wound exploration, debridement, and initiation of appropriate antibiotics.
The other choices are not as concerning in the immediate postoperative period:
A: Respiratory rate within normal range
B: Blood pressure within normal range
D: Straw-colored urine is expected from an indwelling urinary catheter, indicating adequate kidney function and hydration.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse, caring for a client with Buck’s traction, is monitoring the client for complications of the traction. Which assessment finding indicates a complication of this form of traction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weak pedal pulses. Buck's traction is used for immobilization and alignment of fractures, particularly femoral fractures. Weak pedal pulses indicate impaired circulation, which could lead to complications like compartment syndrome or deep vein thrombosis. Monitoring pulses is crucial in assessing the circulation to the affected limb.
Choice B (Complaints of leg discomfort) is common and expected with traction but doesn't indicate a complication.
Choice C (
Toes are warm and demonstrate a brisk capillary refill) indicates good circulation.
Choice D (Drainage at the pin sites) may indicate infection but is not a specific complication related to traction.
Question 5 of 5
Upon assessment, Cullen’s sign is noted. What complication of acute pancreatitis would the nurse suspect that the client might have?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Rationale: Cullen's sign is bluish discoloration around the umbilicus, indicating internal bleeding in acute pancreatitis. This occurs due to retroperitoneal hemorrhage tracking to the periumbilical area.
Choices A, B, and D are not associated with Cullen's sign. Pancreatic pseudocyst may present with epigastric pain, electrolyte imbalance with nausea and vomiting, and pleural effusion with dyspnea.