ATI RN
ATI Medsurg Proctored Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is performing an ECG on a client who is experiencing chest pain. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Applying electrodes to the chest and extremities is necessary for a complete ECG recording. Electrodes are placed strategically to capture electrical activity of the heart. This statement informs the client about the procedure and ensures accurate results. Other options are incorrect because discomfort during the procedure is subjective and not guaranteed (
B), an ECG typically takes only a few minutes, not an hour (
C), and continuous heart rate monitoring is not required post-procedure unless indicated by the results (
D).
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client with a history of calcium oxalate kidney stones. What advice should be given?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Drink 3 L of fluid every day. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent the formation of kidney stones by diluting the urine and reducing the concentration of minerals like calcium oxalate. Adequate hydration promotes frequent urination, which helps flush out these minerals. Limiting fluid intake (choice
A) can lead to concentrated urine and increase the risk of stone formation. Increasing calcium intake (choice
C) can actually help prevent calcium oxalate stones, as calcium binds with oxalate in the intestines, reducing its absorption. Avoiding all citrus juices (choice
D) is unnecessary, as they do not directly contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy. The client's partner has been taught to perform suctioning. Which of the following actions by the partner should indicate to the nurse a readiness for the client's discharge?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Performing the procedure independently indicates readiness for discharge as it shows the partner has mastered the skill and can provide proper care without supervision.
Choice B indicates the partner still needs assistance, choice C shows knowledge but not necessarily competency, and choice D suggests continued reliance on the nurse.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse evaluates a client's PSA lab results. An increase in PSA indicates what condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prostatic cancer. PSA levels are commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer. Elevated PSA levels indicate an increased likelihood of prostate cancer. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (choice
A) is a non-cancerous condition that can also cause elevated PSA levels but is not indicative of cancer. Urinary tract infection (choice
C) and kidney stones (choice
D) do not directly affect PSA levels. The other choices (E, F, G) are not provided, but the key is to understand that an increase in PSA specifically points towards the possibility of prostatic cancer.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client for hypoxemia during an asthma attack. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Agitation. During an asthma attack, hypoxemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the brain, causing agitation due to hypoxia. Cyanosis (
A) is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, indicating severe hypoxemia. Hypotension (
C) is not typically associated with hypoxemia in asthma. Dizziness (
D) is more commonly seen in conditions like hyperventilation rather than hypoxemia. In summary, agitation is the most likely manifestation of hypoxemia during an asthma attack due to decreased oxygen supply to the brain.