ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 V Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 4
A nurse is monitoring a client who received a local injection of lidocaine. Which of the following responses should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Client reports of numbness in the area. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that blocks nerve impulses, resulting in numbness in the area where it was injected. This is an expected response as it indicates the medication is working as intended. Ventricular fibrillation (
A) is a serious cardiac arrhythmia unrelated to local lidocaine injection. Tachycardia (
B) is an increased heart rate and not a typical response to lidocaine. Client reports of increased pain in the area (
C) would be unexpected and might indicate a problem with the injection or the medication.
Question 2 of 4
A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 ml via intermittent IV bolus over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/ml. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 50
Rationale: The correct answer is 50 gtt/min.
To calculate the infusion rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), we use the formula: (Volume to be infused in ml × drop factor) ÷ time in minutes. In this case, (100 ml × 15 gtt/ml) ÷ 30 min = 1500 gtt ÷ 30 min = 50 gtt/min. This ensures the correct administration rate for cefazolin. Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the correct calculation method or do not result in the appropriate infusion rate.
Question 3 of 4
A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has a fentanyl patch applied. The client appears restless and agitated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a dose of subcutaneous naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids like fentanyl, which can cause restlessness and agitation if the client is experiencing opioid toxicity. Administering naloxone can help alleviate these symptoms by blocking the opioid receptors.
A: Administering morphine would not address the issue of opioid toxicity and could potentially worsen the client's condition.
C: Administering more fentanyl would exacerbate the symptoms as it would increase the opioid load.
D: Atropine is not indicated for opioid toxicity and would not address the underlying issue.
Question 4 of 4
A nurse is caring for a client and preparing to complete a medication reconciliation. Which of the following actions should the nurse complete first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compiling a list of all medications the client is currently taking should be completed first in medication reconciliation to ensure accuracy. This step allows the nurse to have a comprehensive understanding of the client's current medication regimen. Documenting and sending the updated list to the pharmacy (
A) should come after compiling the list to ensure accuracy. Comparing preadmission medications to current medications (
C) and addressing discrepancies (
D) are important steps but should follow compiling the current medication list.
Question 5 of 4
A nurse is educating a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check your heart rate 1 hour after taking the medication. This statement is important as digoxin can affect heart rate, and monitoring it helps assess for potential toxicity. Option A is incorrect because taking a missed dose could lead to overdose. Option B is unrelated to digoxin therapy. Option D is incorrect as visual changes are not an expected side effect of digoxin. It is crucial for nurses to prioritize patient safety by providing accurate and relevant information.