ATI RN
ATI Medsurg Proctored Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is monitoring a client who has a chest tube in place connected to wall suction due to a right-sided pneumothorax. The client complains of chest burning. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Repositioning the client can help alleviate chest burning caused by the chest tube.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is planning a presentation about HIV for a church-based group. Which of the following information about HIV transmission should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because HIV is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected body fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. This includes activities like unprotected sexual intercourse, sharing needles, and mother-to-child transmission during childbirth or breastfeeding. Casual contact (choice
B) is not a common mode of transmission, and HIV is not transmitted through airborne droplets (choice
C). While sexual contact is a significant mode of transmission, HIV can also be transmitted through other means involving infected body fluids. Thus, option D is incorrect as it is too limiting.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has a pressure ulcer. The nurse should identify an elevation in which of the following laboratory values as an indication that the client has developed an infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: WBC count. An elevation in WBC count indicates an immune response to infection, as white blood cells increase to fight off pathogens. In the context of a pressure ulcer, an elevated WBC count suggests the presence of infection due to the body's response to foreign organisms. Other choices are not directly related to infection in this scenario. Serum albumin level (
A) reflects nutritional status, serum potassium level (
C) indicates electrolyte balance, and BUN (
D) reflects kidney function. Hence, they are not specific indicators of infection in a client with a pressure ulcer.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing dietary instructions for a client who has episodes of biliary colic from chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in fat. Biliary colic is caused by gallstones, and high-fat foods can trigger gallbladder contractions leading to pain.
Therefore, advising the client to avoid foods high in fat can help prevent biliary colic episodes.
Choice B is incorrect as carbohydrates do not directly affect biliary colic.
Choice C is incorrect because while a high-protein, low-fat diet may be beneficial for some conditions, it is not specifically recommended for biliary colic.
Choice D is incorrect as increasing intake of high-fat foods can worsen symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the right forearm. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the teaching as a possible indication of venous insufficiency?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor and numbness distal to the fistula site. This is indicative of venous insufficiency in a client with an arteriovenous fistula. Venous insufficiency occurs when there is inadequate venous return to the heart, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen delivery to the tissues. Pallor and numbness are signs of decreased blood flow, which can occur when the fistula is not functioning properly. Cold and numbness (choice
A) may indicate arterial insufficiency, not venous. Redness and warmth (choice
C) are signs of inflammation, not venous insufficiency. Pain in the fistula site (choice
D) may be due to other reasons like infection or nerve compression, not necessarily venous insufficiency.