ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam -Nurselytic

Questions 66

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ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A nurse is mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe prior to administering it to a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should first inject air into the NPH vial before withdrawing the insulin. This step ensures proper pressure within the vial, making it easier to withdraw the desired dose without creating a vacuum. Injecting air into the regular insulin vial first could lead to contamination as air bubbles may be pushed into the insulin. Withdrawing either insulin first could result in an inaccurate dose. Injecting air into both vials is unnecessary and may increase the risk of contamination.
Therefore, injecting air into the NPH insulin vial is the first essential step in preparing the mixed insulin correctly.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is discussing adverse reactions to pain medications in older adult clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as risk factors for an adverse drug reaction? (SATA)

Correct Answer: A,C,D,E

Rationale:
Correct Answer: A, C, D, E


Rationale:
A: Polypharmacy in older adults can increase the risk of drug interactions and adverse reactions.
C: Decreased percentage of body fat can lead to altered drug distribution and increased drug concentrations.
D: Older adults with multiple health problems may have compromised organ function, leading to increased susceptibility to adverse drug reactions.
E: Older adults are more likely to have age-related changes in drug metabolism, which can affect the pharmacokinetics of medications.
Summary:
B: Increased rate of absorption is not necessarily a risk factor for adverse drug reactions in older adults.
F & G:

Choices not provided, so cannot be considered as risk factors.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is administering 4 mg of hydromorphone to a client by mouth every 4 hr. The medication is provided as hydromorphone 8 mg per tablet. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dispose of the remaining medication while another nurse observes. This is the appropriate action for the nurse to take because hydromorphone is a controlled substance, and any remaining portion of the tablet should not be saved or stored for future use. The presence of another nurse observing the disposal ensures accountability and adherence to proper medication administration protocols. Returning the medication to the pharmacy (
A), storing the remaining half of the pill in the automated system (
B), or placing it in the unit dose package (
C) are all incorrect as they do not align with safe medication handling practices for controlled substances. The key is to prevent diversion and ensure proper disposal under supervision.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is preparing to administer subcutaneous heparin to a client. Which of the following should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because inserting the needle at least 5 cm from the umbilicus helps prevent injury to the underlying structures. It ensures proper administration of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue, reducing the risk of complications. Massaging the site after administering the medication (choice
A) is incorrect as it can cause bruising and discomfort. Using a 21-gauge needle (choice
B) is incorrect because a smaller gauge needle is typically recommended for subcutaneous injections. Aspirating before injecting the medication (choice
C) is unnecessary for subcutaneous injections as there are no major blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is administering naloxone to a client who has developed an adverse reaction to morphine. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a therapeutic effect of naloxone?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased respiratory rate. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids like morphine by blocking their receptors. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so naloxone's therapeutic effect is to increase the client's respiratory rate. This helps prevent respiratory failure.
A: Nausea is not a direct effect of naloxone administration.
B: Naloxone does not provide additional pain relief but rather reverses the pain relief effects of opioids.
C: Naloxone may cause an increase in blood pressure due to its stimulatory effects on the cardiovascular system.
D: Increased respiratory rate is the correct therapeutic effect of naloxone.
E, F, G:

Choices are not provided.

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