ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 II | Nurselytic

Questions 63

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ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 II Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A nurse is educating a client about pain management with opioids. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Long-term use of opioids may cause dependence. The nurse should include this information because opioids have the potential to lead to physical dependence over time, which can result in withdrawal symptoms if the medication is discontinued abruptly. It is crucial for the client to understand the risks associated with long-term opioid use to make informed decisions about their pain management.

Explanation for other choices:
A: Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of opioids. Constipation is actually a more frequent side effect.
B: Opioids typically decrease urinary output, so this statement is incorrect.
D:
Tolerance to opioids often develops over time, requiring an increased dose rather than a decreased one.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim 5 mcg/kg/day subcutaneously to a client who weighs 143 lbs. How many mcg should the nurse administer per day? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer: 325

Rationale:
To calculate the correct dosage of filgrastim for the client weighing 143 lbs, we first need to convert the weight to kg by dividing it by 2.2 (1 kg = 2.2 lbs). 143 lbs / 2.2 = 65 kg.
Then, multiply the weight in kg by the dosage of 5 mcg/kg/day: 65 kg x 5 mcg/kg/day = 325 mcg/day. The correct answer is 325 mcg/day.

Summary:
-
Choice A: Incorrect, as it does not provide the calculated dosage based on the client's weight and medication requirement.
-

Choices B-G: Irrelevant as they do not offer a calculated dosage or provide any relevant information.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL via intermittent IV bolus over 30 minutes. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer: 50

Rationale:
To calculate the IV infusion rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), we can use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes. In this case, the volume to be infused is 100 mL, drop factor is 15 gtt/mL, and the time is 30 minutes. Plugging these values into the formula: (100 mL x 15 gtt/mL) / 30 minutes = 1500 gtt / 30 minutes = 50 gtt/min.
Therefore, the correct answer is 50 gtt/min. This rate ensures the cefazolin is administered over the desired 30-minute timeframe. Other choices are incorrect because they do not align with the calculated rate based on the given parameters.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who has septic shock and is receiving dopamine by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. In septic shock, dopamine is used to increase blood pressure. Hypotension indicates that the current dosage is not effectively managing the client's blood pressure, necessitating an increase in the infusion rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Headache (choice
A) is a common side effect of dopamine but does not directly correlate with the need for a dosage increase. Chest pain (choice
C) may indicate other issues but does not specifically warrant a change in dopamine infusion rate. Extravasation (choice
D) refers to the leakage of IV fluid into the surrounding tissue and requires immediate attention but is not directly related to adjusting the infusion rate of dopamine.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take to minimize bleeding following the injection?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale:
Correct
Answer: B: Grasp skin between thumb and forefinger throughout the injection.


Rationale: Grasping the skin between the thumb and forefinger helps to create tension at the injection site, which can help minimize bleeding after the injection. This technique helps to stabilize the skin and underlying tissues, reducing the risk of bruising or bleeding. It also ensures proper needle insertion and medication delivery without causing damage to the surrounding blood vessels or tissues.

Summary of Other

Choices:
A: Using the Z-track method is not necessary for subcutaneous injections, as it is primarily for intramuscular injections to prevent medication leakage.
C: Massaging the site can increase bleeding by causing further disruption of the blood vessels.
D: Aspirating the syringe is not needed for subcutaneous injections since the needle tip is not in a blood vessel.

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