ATI RN
RN ATI Maternal Proctored Exam 2023-2024 with NGN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is discussing fertility treatment options with a client and their partner. Which of the following nonpharmacological treatments should the nurse suggest?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintain a healthy weight. This is because maintaining a healthy weight can positively impact fertility by balancing hormone levels and improving reproductive function. Excess weight can lead to hormonal imbalances and ovulation issues, affecting fertility. Regular exercise and a balanced diet can help achieve and maintain a healthy weight.
A: Using a lubricant during intercourse may enhance comfort but does not directly impact fertility.
B: Drinking herbal tea may have some health benefits but is not a proven method to improve fertility.
D: Taking daily hot baths can actually have a negative impact on sperm production and should be avoided when trying to conceive.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and is being tested for group B streptococcus ß-hemolytic (GBS). The client is multigravida and multipara with no history of GBS. She asks the nurse why the test was not conducted earlier in her pregnancy. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because testing for GBS at 37 weeks of gestation allows healthcare providers to determine the current status of GBS colonization in the mother. This timing ensures that appropriate interventions, such as administering intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis during labor, can be implemented to prevent neonatal GBS infection. Testing earlier in pregnancy may not accurately reflect the GBS status at the time of delivery.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific rationale for testing at 37 weeks.
Choice A focuses on symptoms, which are not always present in GBS colonization.
Choice B refers to previous deliveries, which may not accurately predict the current GBS status.
Choice C mentions earlier prenatal testing, which may not capture GBS colonization at the time of delivery.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is performing an initial assessment of a newborn who was delivered with a nuchal cord. Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial petechiae. Petechiae are small, pinpoint red or purple spots on the skin caused by broken blood vessels. In the case of a newborn delivered with a nuchal cord (umbilical cord wrapped around the neck), there may have been some pressure on the baby's face during delivery, leading to the appearance of facial petechiae. This finding is a result of capillary rupture due to the pressure exerted by the nuchal cord. Telangiectatic nevi (
A), periauricular papillomas (
C), and erythema toxicum (
D) are not typically associated with pressure from a nuchal cord.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin via continuous IV infusion and is experiencing persistent late decelerations in the FHR. After discontinuing the infusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via nonrebreather facemask. Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can lead to fetal hypoxia. Administering oxygen helps improve oxygenation to the fetus and can potentially reverse hypoxia. Other choices are incorrect:
A: Bearing down can further reduce oxygen supply to the fetus.
C: Placing the client in a supine position can worsen late decelerations by reducing blood flow to the placenta.
D: Initiating an amnioinfusion is used to alleviate variable decelerations, not late decelerations.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer metronidazole 2 g PO to a client who has trichomoniasis. Available is metronidazole 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 tablets.
To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the total dosage (2g) by the dosage per tablet (250mg). 2g = 2000mg, so 2000mg ÷ 250mg = 8 tablets. This ensures the client receives the correct total dose for effective treatment. Option B: 4 tablets is incorrect as it does not match the calculated dosage. Option C: 2 tablets is incorrect as it is half of the required dosage. Option D: 1 tablet is incorrect as it is a quarter of the needed dosage.