ATI Medsurg Proctored Final Exam -Nurselytic

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). ESR is a common test used to monitor inflammation levels in rheumatoid arthritis (R
A) patients. Aspirin is an anti-inflammatory medication, so monitoring ESR can help assess the effectiveness of the treatment. A decrease in ESR levels indicates a reduction in inflammation, suggesting that the aspirin is working. The other choices (A, C,
D) are not specific to monitoring the effectiveness of aspirin in RA. C-reactive protein and white blood cell count are general markers of inflammation and infection, not specific to RA. Hematocrit measures red blood cell levels, which are not directly related to the effectiveness of aspirin in treating RA.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, there is inflammation of the pancreas leading to leakage of pancreatic enzymes like amylase into the blood. Elevated amylase levels are a hallmark of acute pancreatitis. Creatinine (
A) is related to kidney function, bilirubin (
B) to liver function, and albumin (
D) to protein status. In acute pancreatitis, the focus is on pancreatic enzymes like amylase.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Postcoital bleeding. Cervical polyps are benign growths on the cervix that can cause postcoital bleeding due to contact with the polyp during intercourse. Pelvic pain, heavy menstrual bleeding, and urinary incontinence are not typical symptoms of cervical polyps. Pelvic pain may occur in other conditions like endometriosis. Heavy menstrual bleeding can be a symptom of fibroids or hormonal imbalances. Urinary incontinence is more commonly associated with pelvic floor disorders or urinary tract infections. Postcoital bleeding specifically points to cervical polyps as the likely cause.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client might experience shoulder pain following the procedure. This is because hysterosalpingography involves the injection of contrast dye into the uterus and fallopian tubes, which can cause referred pain to the shoulder due to irritation of the diaphragm. This information is crucial for the client to be aware of potential side effects.

The other choices are incorrect:
B: The client might experience nausea and vomiting after the procedure - This is not a common side effect of hysterosalpingography.
C: The client will need to stay in bed for 24 hours post-procedure - There is no requirement for prolonged bed rest after the procedure.
D: The client should avoid drinking fluids before the procedure - In fact, it is recommended to drink plenty of fluids before the procedure to help flush out the contrast dye.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Completing a dressing change. When completing a dressing change for a client who is HIV positive and postoperative, the nurse should wear a gown as personal protective equipment to prevent potential exposure to blood or body fluids. This is crucial for infection control and to protect both the nurse and the client.


Choice A: Changing the client's linens does not necessarily require wearing a gown unless there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids.

Choice B: Administering oral medications does not require wearing a gown as there is no risk of exposure to blood or body fluids.

Choice C: Taking vital signs also does not require wearing a gown unless there is a possibility of exposure to blood or body fluids during the procedure.

In summary, completing a dressing change involves the risk of exposure to blood or body fluids, hence the need for wearing a gown. Other actions listed do not carry the same level of risk, therefore do not require the use of a gown as personal protective