ATI RN
ATI Medsurg Proctored Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who the provider suspects might have pernicious anemia. The nurse should expect the provider to prescribe which of the following diagnostic tests?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Schilling test. Pernicious anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, often due to poor absorption. The Schilling test is specifically used to diagnose pernicious anemia by evaluating the body's ability to absorb vitamin B12. The test involves giving the patient a small amount of radioactive vitamin B12 to determine how well it is absorbed and utilized by the body. This test helps to differentiate pernicious anemia from other causes of B12 deficiency.
Choice B (Complete blood count) is a general test that may show abnormalities in red blood cells seen in anemia, but it does not specifically diagnose pernicious anemia.
Choice C (Vitamin B12 level) alone may not differentiate between pernicious anemia and other causes of B12 deficiency.
Choice D (Bone marrow biopsy) is not typically necessary for diagnosing pernicious anemia and is more invasive compared to the Schilling test.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has been taking prednisone to treat asthma and has a new prescription to discontinue the medication. The nurse should explain to the client to reduce the dose gradually to prevent which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adrenocortical insufficiency. Gradually reducing prednisone dose is important as prednisone suppresses the body's natural production of cortisol. Abrupt discontinuation can lead to adrenal insufficiency due to the sudden decrease in cortisol levels. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, weight loss, and hypotension. Osteoporosis (
A) is a long-term side effect of prednisone but not a concern with dose reduction. Hypoglycemia (
B) and Hyperkalemia (
C) are not typically associated with prednisone withdrawal.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has hypertension and a prescription change from metoprolol to metoprolol/hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. By stating that with the new medication, the client should experience fewer side effects, the client demonstrates understanding that the addition of hydrochlorothiazide may help reduce side effects compared to taking metoprolol alone. This indicates comprehension of the teaching provided by the nurse.
Choice B is incorrect because the client should not expect an increase in blood pressure with the new medication regimen.
Choice C is incorrect as it typically takes time for medications to reach their full effectiveness, so immediate results are not expected.
Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication when feeling better can lead to a worsening of hypertension and other health issues.
Overall, choice A is the best response as it shows an understanding of the medication change and its potential benefits.
Question 4 of 5
A client is teaching a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide for management of hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Rationale: Correct answer is A. Leg cramps are a common side effect of hydrochlorothiazide due to electrolyte imbalance. Monitoring for leg cramps will help in identifying and managing this side effect promptly.
Choices B and D are incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte depletion, so increasing sodium intake is not recommended, and taking the medication at bedtime may increase nighttime urination.
Choice C is incorrect as headaches are not a common side effect of hydrochlorothiazide.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has hypertension and a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Take the medication early in the day. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that increases urine production, which can cause frequent urination. Taking it early helps prevent nighttime urination, promoting better sleep. Taking it with food may reduce gastrointestinal upset. Taking it only when blood pressure is high is incorrect, as it should be taken regularly to maintain consistent blood pressure control. Bedtime dosing may lead to nocturnal diuresis and disturb sleep. The other choices are irrelevant or incorrect in the context of hydrochlorothiazide administration.