ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 IV Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking lithium and reports starting a new exercise program. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. When a client taking lithium starts a new exercise program, they may sweat more, leading to sodium loss. This can result in hyponatremia, which is a common electrolyte imbalance associated with lithium therapy. Symptoms of hyponatremia include confusion, headache, muscle weakness, and nausea.
A: Hypokalemia is not typically associated with lithium therapy or exercise programs.
C: Hypocalcemia is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with lithium therapy or exercise.
D: Hypomagnesemia is also not a common electrolyte imbalance related to lithium or exercise.
Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate electrolyte imbalance to assess in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has muscarinic agonist poisoning. Following administration of atropine, which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the treatment has been effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heart rate 90/min. Atropine is given to treat muscarinic agonist poisoning by blocking the effects of excessive acetylcholine, which slows down the heart rate.
Therefore, if the heart rate increases to a more normal range like 90/min after atropine administration, it indicates that the treatment has been effective in reversing the toxic effects. The other choices are incorrect because hyperactive bowel sounds (
A) and increased salivation (
D) are symptoms of muscarinic agonist poisoning that atropine would aim to reduce. Similarly, low blood pressure (
C) is a common symptom of muscarinic agonist poisoning and atropine would aim to increase blood pressure by reversing the effects of excessive acetylcholine.
Question 3 of 5
What actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C,D,E
Rationale: The correct actions for the nurse to take are C, D, and E.
C: Advising the client to change positions slowly helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and potential falls.
D: Monitoring the client for dysrhythmias is important, especially if the client is taking medications that can affect cardiac function.
E: Checking the client for orthostatic hypotension is crucial to assess for potential adverse effects of medications.
Choice A is incorrect as it does not address potential side effects related to position changes.
Choice B is incorrect as restricting potassium intake may not be necessary based on the client's condition.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has received oxycodone. The nurse notes that the client's respiratory rate is 8/min. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the pathophysiology for the client's respiratory rate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oxycodone causes central nervous system depression. Oxycodone is an opioid that acts on the central nervous system, specifically the brainstem, to depress respiratory drive. This leads to a decrease in respiratory rate. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Oxycodone does not directly inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. C: Oxycodone does not block sodium channels to suspend nerve conduction. D: Oxycodone does not directly promote vasodilation of cranial arteries. In summary, the respiratory depression caused by oxycodone is due to its effect on the central nervous system, not its actions on prostaglandin synthesis, sodium channels, or cranial arteries.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has stable angina and a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches 0.8 mg/hr daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will take the patch off after dinner every night." This statement indicates understanding because nitroglycerin patches are typically worn for 12-14 hours, then removed for a 10-12 hour patch-free period to prevent tolerance. Removing the patch after dinner ensures a suitable time frame for effectiveness without interruption.
Choice B is incorrect because applying a new patch to the same site repeatedly can lead to skin irritation and reduced absorption.
Choice C is incorrect as cutting the patch compromises the controlled release mechanism and can cause an uneven dose.
Choice D is incorrect because applying a second patch without medical advice can lead to overdose and severe hypotension.