ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn level 3 Final Exam 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving prenatal care and is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 hour glucose tolerance test. At 24 weeks, it is crucial to screen for gestational diabetes. This test helps identify if the client's body is processing sugar properly during pregnancy. Rubella titer and Group B strep culture are important tests but not typically done at 24 weeks. Blood type and Rh testing is usually done earlier in pregnancy, around 8-12 weeks. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test is the most relevant test for this stage of prenatal care to monitor the client's glucose levels and ensure the well-being of both the mother and baby.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation. The nurse should plan to immunize the client which of the following vaccinations? Select all the apply
Correct Answer: C,D
Rationale: The correct vaccinations for a client at 30 weeks of gestation are Diphtheria-acellular pertussis (
C) and inactivated influenza (
D). Both are recommended during pregnancy to protect the mother and baby. Diphtheria-pertussis protects against respiratory infections, important for pregnant women due to increased susceptibility. Inactivated influenza is crucial to prevent severe flu complications. Varicella (
A) and human papillomavirus (
B) vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy. The measles, mumps, and rubella (E) vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine, not recommended during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal harm.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a postpartum client about caring for her five-year 5day old male newborn at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse make to the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify your baby's pediatrician if he urinates less than 6 times per day. This is important because it could indicate dehydration or other medical issues. A: Retracting the foreskin to clean the penis is not recommended as it can cause harm. B: Using triple antibiotic ointment on the umbilical cord can delay healing and increase infection risk. C: Swaddling tightly with legs extended can increase the risk of hip dysplasia. Overall, D is the correct choice as it focuses on monitoring the baby's health and well-being.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has preterm labor and receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse review during tocolytic therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum medication level. When a client is receiving magnesium sulfate for tocolytic therapy, monitoring the serum medication level is crucial to ensure the drug is within the therapeutic range (4-7.5 mg/dL). This is important to prevent toxicity which can lead to respiratory depression, hypotension, and cardiac arrest. Checking liver enzymes (choice
B) is not directly related to magnesium sulfate therapy. Uric acid level (choice
C) is not typically monitored during tocolytic therapy. Indirect Coombs test (choice
A) is used to detect antibodies on the surface of red blood cells, not relevant in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Painless, vaginal bleeding. In placenta previa, the placenta implants low in the uterus, covering the cervix, leading to painless bleeding in the third trimester. A: Firm rigid abdomen is associated with abruptio placentae. C: Uterine hypertonicity is seen in conditions like uterine rupture. D: Persistent headache is not a typical finding in placenta previa.