ATI Maternal NewBorn Proctored Exam 2023 with NGN All 70 Questions With Answers -Nurselytic

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ATI Maternal NewBorn Proctored Exam 2023 with NGN All 70 Questions With Answers Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and requires augmentation of labor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the use of oxytocin?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shoulder presentation. This condition is a contraindication to the use of oxytocin because it can lead to complications such as umbilical cord prolapse, which can be dangerous for both the mother and the baby. Oxytocin can increase the strength and frequency of contractions, potentially worsening the situation.


Choice A: Post-term with oligohydramnios is not a contraindication to the use of oxytocin. It may actually be a reason to consider augmentation of labor.


Choice B: Chorioamnionitis is an infection of the fetal membranes and amniotic fluid, and while it may require treatment, it is not a contraindication to the use of oxytocin.


Choice D: Diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication to the use of oxytocin unless there are specific complications related to diabetes that would make its use risky.

In summary, the correct answer, shoulder presentation,

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased platelet count. In idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP), there is a decrease in platelet count due to immune-mediated destruction of platelets. This can lead to an increased risk of bleeding.

Explanation for other choices:
B: Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is not typically associated with ITP.
C: Decreased megakaryocytes may be seen in some cases of ITP but is not a consistent finding.
D: Increased WBC is not a characteristic finding in ITP.


Therefore, the most relevant finding in a client with ITP would be a decreased platelet count due to the underlying pathophysiology of the condition.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving a continuous infusion of magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have calcium gluconate readily available. Magnesium sulfate can lead to magnesium toxicity, causing respiratory depression and cardiac arrest. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity, so having it readily available is crucial for immediate administration if toxicity occurs. Option A is incorrect as fluid intake should not be restricted in preeclampsia. Option C is incorrect as deep tendon reflexes should be assessed more frequently (every 1-2 hours) due to the risk of hypermagnesemia. Option D is incorrect as intake and output should be monitored hourly to detect any changes in renal function.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow. (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the order of performance. Use all the steps.)

Order the Items

Source Container

Identify the attitude of the head.
Palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part.
Determine the location of the fetal back.
Palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet.

Correct Answer: B, C, D, A

Rationale: The correct order for performing Leopold maneuvers is B, C, D, A. Firstly, palpating the fundus (
B) helps identify the fetal part. Next, determining the location of the fetal back (
C) gives insight into the baby's position. Palpating for the fetal part at the inlet (
D) helps determine the presenting part. Finally, identifying the attitude of the head (
A) concludes the assessment. The other choices do not align with the sequential nature of Leopold maneuvers, making them incorrect.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: PHR baseline 170/min. A baseline fetal heart rate of 170/min is considered tachycardia and may indicate fetal distress, requiring immediate attention. This finding can be indicative of fetal hypoxia or other complications. The nurse should report this to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention.
Contractions lasting 80 seconds (choice
A) are within the normal range for active labor and do not necessarily require immediate reporting.
Early decelerations in the PHR (choice
B) are benign and typically not a cause for concern unless they are persistent or associated with other abnormal findings.
A temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F) (choice
C) is within normal limits and does not require immediate reporting unless it continues to rise significantly.
In summary, the correct answer is D because a baseline fetal heart rate of 170/min is abnormal and potentially indicative of fetal distress, requiring immediate provider notification.

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