ATI RN
RN ATI Maternal Newborn 2023 with NGN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and has a positive contraction stress test. For which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse prepare the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biophysical profile (BPP). At 41 weeks of gestation, a positive contraction stress test indicates potential placental insufficiency. A BPP assesses fetal well-being by evaluating fetal movement, muscle tone, breathing, amniotic fluid volume, and heart rate reactivity. This test helps determine the need for immediate delivery.
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (
A) is used to directly sample fetal blood for genetic testing and not for assessing fetal well-being. Amnioinfusion (
B) is used to increase amniotic fluid volume during labor and not for evaluating fetal well-being. Chorionic villus sampling (
D) is an invasive prenatal diagnostic test for genetic abnormalities and not for assessing fetal well-being.
Extract:
A nurse in a clinic a caring for a 16-year-old adolescent
Exhibit1:
Provider Prescriptions: Standing prescriptions for clients who present with abdominal. Obtain laboratory
tests, Urinalysis, Cervical culture C-reactive protein Beta Hcg
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? Select all that apply
Abdominal assessment. |
Vaginal Discharge. |
Heart rate. |
Temperature. |
Dyspareunia. |
Condom usage. |
Correct Answer: B, E
Rationale:
The nurse should report vaginal discharge (
B) as it could indicate infection or other issues. Dyspareunia (E) should also be reported as it can indicate underlying problems. Abdominal assessment (
A) may be part of routine care but doesn't necessarily require immediate reporting. Heart rate (
C) and temperature (
D) are vital signs that should be monitored but don't specifically indicate a need for immediate reporting. Condom usage (F) is important for sexual health discussions but does not require reporting to the provider.
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for combined oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as an adverse effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Depression. Combined oral contraceptives can lead to mood changes, including depression, as a potential adverse effect due to hormonal fluctuations. This is important for the nurse to include in teaching to monitor and address any mental health concerns. Polyuria (increased urination) is not a common adverse effect of combined oral contraceptives. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is not typically associated with this medication. Urticaria (hives) is more commonly seen with allergic reactions rather than as a side effect of oral contraceptives.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. By stating she will eat foods that taste good instead of balancing meals, the client demonstrates understanding of the need to prioritize eating to manage hyperemesis gravidarum. This choice indicates she recognizes the importance of maintaining adequate nutrition despite food aversions.
Choice B is incorrect as avoiding bedtime snacks may worsen nausea.
Choice C is incorrect as caffeine in tea can exacerbate nausea.
Choice D is incorrect as dairy products are important for calcium and protein intake during pregnancy.
Extract:
A nurse is reviewing the provider's prescription in the adolescent's medical chart
Exhibit 1
History and Physical, Adolescent is sexually active with two current partners.
IUD in place, Reports not using condoms during sexual activity.
History of type 1 diabetes mellitus
Question 5 of 5
The nurse should first implement --- and ---
Correct Answer: B, C
Rationale: The correct answer is B, C. The nurse should first implement administering doxycycline and ceftriaxone in the treatment of certain infections like gonorrhea and chlamydia. Administering these antibiotics promptly is crucial to start the treatment process effectively. Providing education on medications (choice
A) can follow once the initial treatment is administered. Administering metronidazole alone (choice E) or with educating on condoms (choice
D) is not appropriate for the initial treatment of gonorrhea or chlamydia. Administering metronidazole alone would not effectively address these infections.