ATI RN Maternal Newborn Latest Update. -Nurselytic

Questions 63

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ATI RN Maternal Newborn Latest Update. Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Malodorous discharge. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. Symptoms include a foul-smelling, yellow-green vaginal discharge. At 20 weeks of gestation, hormonal changes can increase vaginal discharge, but the malodorous aspect is specific to trichomoniasis.
Choice A is incorrect because trichomoniasis typically presents with a thin, frothy discharge, not thick and white.
Choice B, urinary frequency, is not a common symptom of trichomoniasis.
Choice C, vulva lesions, is more indicative of other STIs like herpes or syphilis.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hr postpartum following a vaginal birth. The nurse notes that the client has excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Massage the client's fundus. This is the first action the nurse should take because excessive vaginal bleeding postpartum could indicate uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Massaging the fundus helps stimulate uterine contractions, which can help control bleeding. This should be done before administering medications like oxytocin (
B) or providing oxygen (
D), as addressing the underlying cause is crucial. Emptying the bladder (
C) is important but comes after addressing the uterine atony.

Extract:

A nurse is assessing a postpartum client who delivered vaginally 8 hr ago.

Exhibit 1 - Nurses' Notes: 0700
Breasts soft, nipples intact. Uterus palpated firm, midline, and at the level of the umbilicus.
Moderate amount of lochia rubra. Episiotomy site well approximated with mild edema and
ecchymosis. Client reports pain as 2 on a scale of 0 to 10. Able to void spontaneously; no bladder
distention. Deep tendon reflexes 1+. Peripheral edema 2+ in bilateral lower extremities.
Exhibit 2 - Nurses' Notes: 1100
Breasts soft, nipples intact. Uterus palpated soft with lateral deviation and 1 cm above the
umbilicus. Large amount of lochia rubra. Episiotomy site well approximated with mild edema
and ecchymosis. Client reports pain as 3 on a scale of 0 to 10. Deep tendon reflexes 1+.
Peripheral edema 2+ in bilateral lower extremities.


Question 3 of 5

Select the 3 findings that require immediate follow-up.

Correct Answer: A,B,C

Rationale: The correct answer is A, B, and C because they indicate potential health concerns that require immediate follow-up. A, lateral deviation of the uterus, could indicate a possible uterine abnormality or displacement. B, deep tendon reflexes 1+, may suggest neurological issues or abnormalities. C, pain rating of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 (increased), signifies escalating pain levels that need to be addressed promptly.

Choices D, E, F, and G do not require immediate follow-up as they are within normal ranges or not indicative of urgent issues.

Extract:


Question 4 of 5

A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fasting blood glucose 180 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL). High blood glucose levels during pregnancy can indicate gestational diabetes, which poses risks to both the mother and the baby. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management.


Choice A (Hematocrit 37%): Falls within the normal range for pregnancy and does not require immediate reporting.


Choice B (Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL): Within the normal range and does not indicate a concerning issue at this time.


Choice C (WBC count 11,000/mm3): Slightly elevated, but can be a normal physiological response during pregnancy and does not necessarily warrant immediate reporting.

In summary, the correct answer is D as it signifies a potential health concern that requires further assessment.

Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for pregnancy and do not pose immediate risks.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse in a provider’s office is caring for a 20-year-old client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and requests an amniocentesis to determine the sex of the fetus. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is B: This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders. At 12 weeks of gestation, amniocentesis is typically performed to detect genetic abnormalities, not to determine the sex of the fetus. This procedure involves collecting a sample of amniotic fluid to analyze the chromosomes for conditions like Down syndrome. Option A is incorrect as age is not a factor in determining the need for amniocentesis. Option C is incorrect because chorionic villus sampling is used for genetic testing, not determining the sex of the baby. Option D is incorrect because scheduling the procedure without addressing the client's request for sex determination is inappropriate.

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