ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 IV Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A negative sputum culture indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. This outcome suggests that the medication is effectively reducing the bacterial load in the lungs. A positive PPD test (choice
A) indicates exposure to TB but does not assess medication adherence. A negative HIV test (choice
B) is unrelated to TB medication adherence. Liver function test results within the expected range (choice
D) are important but do not directly confirm medication adherence for TB.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for an epinephrine auto-injector. The nurse should instruct the client to take which of the following actions first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jab the device into the outer thigh. This action is crucial because epinephrine needs to be delivered quickly in case of an allergic reaction. Jabbing the device ensures prompt administration, as opposed to massaging the thigh first (
A), seeking immediate medical attention (
C), or holding the injector in place (
D), which can delay the delivery of epinephrine and worsen the client's condition.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's weight daily. Monitoring the client's weight daily is essential when administering TPN to assess fluid balance and nutritional status. Weight changes can indicate fluid retention or loss, helping to adjust the TPN solution accordingly. Hanging the TPN to gravity (
A) is incorrect as TPN should be administered using an infusion pump to control the rate accurately. Titrating TPN to blood pressure (
C) is incorrect as TPN is not adjusted based on blood pressure but rather individual nutritional needs. Obtaining the client's blood glucose level weekly (
D) is important but not as crucial as monitoring weight daily to ensure adequate TPN therapy.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hearing loss. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to hearing loss. This adverse effect is important for the nurse to monitor in clients taking furosemide. Increased blood pressure (
A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather a desired outcome in heart failure management. Ankle edema (
C) is actually a symptom of heart failure and should improve with furosemide use. Decreased blood sugar (
D) is not a common adverse effect of furosemide.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who is to start taking clopidogrel. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report which of the following adverse effects of the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bruising. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. One of the common side effects of clopidogrel is increased risk of bleeding, which can manifest as easy bruising. Monitoring and reporting bruising is important as it could indicate potential issues with clotting.
A: Blurred vision is not a common side effect of clopidogrel.
B: Constipation is not a common side effect of clopidogrel.
D: Weight loss is not a common side effect of clopidogrel.