ATI RN
RN ATI Maternal Newborn 2023 with NGN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving a continuous infusion of magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have calcium gluconate readily available. Magnesium sulfate IV can lead to magnesium toxicity, causing decreased neuromuscular activity, including respiratory depression. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular system. Having it readily available can help in case of an emergency.
Choice A is incorrect as fluid intake should not be restricted in preeclampsia.
Choice C is incorrect as assessing deep tendon reflexes every 6 hours is not directly related to managing magnesium sulfate infusion.
Choice D is incorrect as monitoring intake and output every 4 hours is not specific to the management of magnesium sulfate infusion.
Extract:
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results in the adolescent's medical record.
Exhibit 1
Vital Signs
1300: Blood pressure 118/72 mm Hg, Heart rate 100/min ,Respiratory rate 20/min ,Temperature 38.3° C
(101° F)
Exhibit 2:
Provider Prescriptions 1300: Standing prescriptions for clients who present with abdominal pain: Obtain
laboratory tests: Urinalysis Cervical culture C-reactive protein Beta hCG
Exhibit 3:
Nurses' Notes 1300: Admitted adolescent reporting "cramping in my stomach." Reports pain as a 4 on 0
to 10 pain scale and describes pain as constant and dull. Reports nausea and vomiting over past 24
hours. Reports painful urination and pain during sexual intercourse with minimal vaginal itching-
Tenderness with palpation to lower abdomen, guarding abdomen observed. Greenish vaginal discharge
observed. Reports last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago as normal period lasted 4 days. “
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following conditions is the client most likely developing?
| Pelvic inflammatory. |
| Ectopic pregnancy. |
| Pyclonephritis. |
| C-reactive protein. |
| Beta hCG. |
| Urinalysis. |
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For the correct answer A : (1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0)
Rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PI
D) is an infection of the female reproductive organs. It typically presents with symptoms like pelvic pain, abnormal vaginal discharge, fever, and painful urination. It is commonly associated with sexually transmitted infections. In this scenario, the client is most likely developing PID due to the presence of symptoms such as pelvic pain and abnormal discharge. Ectopic pregnancy (
B) presents with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, not typically associated with PID. Pyelonephritis (
C) is a kidney infection that manifests with fever, flank pain, and urinary symptoms, not specific to PID. C-reactive protein (
D) is a marker of inflammation, not a condition itself. Beta hCG (E) is a hormone indicative of pregnancy, not specific to PID. Urinalysis (F) can help diagnose urinary tract infections but
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is observing a new guardian caring for their crying newborn who is bottle feeding. Which of the following actions by the guardian should the nurse recognize as a positive parenting behavior?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lays the newborn across their lap and gently sways. This is a positive parenting behavior because it helps create a comforting environment for the newborn by providing physical closeness and rhythmic movement, which can help soothe the baby. Placing the newborn in the crib in a prone position (choice
B) is not recommended due to the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Offering a pacifier dipped in formula (choice
C) is not advised as it can lead to overfeeding and dental issues. Preparing a bottle of formula mixed with rice cereal (choice
D) is not appropriate for a newborn as they have specific feeding needs.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive oxytocin to augment their labor. Which of the following findings contraindicates the initiation of the oxytocin infusion and should be reported to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Late decelerations. Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can lead to fetal distress. Oxytocin can further decrease uteroplacental perfusion, worsening the late decelerations. This finding should be reported to the provider immediately to prevent fetal compromise.
Incorrect choices:
B: Moderate variability of the FHR is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not contraindicate the initiation of oxytocin.
C: Cessation of uterine dilation may indicate a prolonged labor but is not a contraindication for oxytocin infusion.
D: Prolonged active phase of labor may require augmentation with oxytocin, so it is not a contraindication on its own.
Question 5 of 5
A school nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent about levonorgestrel contraception. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse. Levonorgestrel is most effective when taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex to prevent pregnancy. It works by preventing ovulation or fertilization.
Choice B is incorrect because levonorgestrel can be used even if the individual is on oral contraceptives.
Choice C is incorrect because a missed period does not necessarily indicate pregnancy.
Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is only effective for a short period after taking it.