ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023 With NGN Questions and Correct Answers Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a decrease in cardiac output?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Confusion. In left-sided heart failure, decreased cardiac output can lead to decreased perfusion to the brain, resulting in confusion. Weight gain (
A) is more indicative of fluid retention, distended abdomen (
B) is a sign of ascites or abdominal organ enlargement, and dyspnea (
D) is a common symptom of heart failure but not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output.
Question 2 of 5
A home health nurse is assessing a client who has pernicious anemia. Which of the following is an expected manifestation that poses a risk to the client's safety?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Paresthesia. Pernicious anemia leads to Vitamin B12 deficiency, causing nerve damage and paresthesia (tingling or burning sensation). This poses a risk to the client's safety as it can affect their balance and coordination, increasing the risk of falls and injuries. Loss of hearing (
A), muscle wasting (
C), and changes in vision (
D) are potential manifestations of pernicious anemia but do not directly pose a risk to safety like paresthesia.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crackles. Left-sided heart failure causes fluid buildup in the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion. Crackles are indicative of fluid in the alveoli, a common sign of pulmonary edema in heart failure. Decreased urine output (
B), daytime oliguria (
C), and halo vision (
D) are not specific to left-sided heart failure. Decreased urine output and oliguria are more associated with kidney dysfunction, while halo vision is related to eye conditions like cataracts.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who received a purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test 48 hr ago and notes erythema with induration of 13 mm at the injection site. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "You will need to follow up with your provider." The nurse should instruct the client to follow up with their provider because an induration of 13 mm at 48 hours post-PPD indicates a positive result for tuberculosis exposure. Follow-up is necessary to determine if treatment or further evaluation is needed.
Choice A is incorrect because annual skin tests are not necessary unless there is ongoing exposure or risk factors.
Choice B is incorrect as the client does not need to return in 48 hours for re-evaluation since the test has already been read at 48 hours.
Choice C is incorrect as repeating the test is not necessary when a positive result is already present.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has a new diagnosis of Graves' disease. The nurse should anticipate which of the following laboratory values to be elevated?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Triiodothyronine. In Graves' disease, there is overproduction of thyroid hormones, including triiodothyronine (T3). Elevated T3 levels are characteristic due to increased thyroid hormone synthesis and release. Triiodothyronine is the active form of thyroid hormone, affecting metabolism, heart rate, and other body functions. Phosphorus (
B), calcium (
C), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (
D) are not typically elevated in Graves' disease. Phosphorus and calcium levels may be normal or even decreased, as the disease primarily affects thyroid hormone levels. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is usually suppressed in Graves' disease due to the negative feedback mechanism of high thyroid hormone levels.