ATI RN
ATI RN Custom 2023 Med-Surg Cardiovascular Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has developed a thrombus and is receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion. The client asks the nurse how long will it take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Heparin prevents further clot formation by enhancing antithrombin activity but does not dissolve existing clots; thrombolytics are needed for that.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse notes a client in supraventricular tachycardia. The patient has a pulse and the cardiac monitor is at the bedside. The nurse understands electrical intervention is indicated. What button does the nurse push to ensure the electricity is delivered on the R wave? Refer to the picture.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion delivers a shock on the R wave to avoid the vulnerable T wave period, reducing the risk of inducing ventricular fibrillation. The SYNC button ensures this timing.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client with angina pectoris about starting therapy with nitroglycerin tablets. The nurse should include which of the following instructions regarding how to take the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is administered sublingually for rapid absorption to relieve chest pain. The standard instruction is to take one tablet every 5 minutes up to 3 doses if chest pain persists, then seek medical help if unrelieved.
Question 4 of 5
A client has developed atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 148 beats per minute. Which assessment findings does the nurse expect to find in this client? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
Rationale: Rapid atrial fibrillation can reduce cardiac output, leading to shortness of breath, hypotension, chest pain, and dizziness due to inadequate perfusion.
Question 5 of 5
Which action by the nurse will determine if therapies ordered for a patient with chronic constrictive pericarditis are effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jugular venous distention is a key sign of constrictive pericarditis due to impaired diastolic filling; its reduction indicates effective therapy.