ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver and is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased ascites. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in cirrhosis to manage ascites by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid accumulation in the abdomen.
Therefore, a decrease in ascites would indicate that the client is responding to the treatment. Increased energy (
A) and increased appetite (
D) are not specific indicators of treatment response in cirrhosis. Decreased jaundice (
B) may improve with liver function but is not a direct response to spironolactone.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking phenelzine and reports eating aged cheese. Which of the following is a manifestation of an interaction between the medication and the food?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypertension. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that can interact with tyramine-rich foods like aged cheese, leading to hypertensive crisis. Tyramine can displace norepinephrine, causing a sudden increase in blood pressure. Somnolence (choice
A) is a common side effect of phenelzine but not related to the interaction with aged cheese. Diarrhea (choice
B) is not a typical manifestation of this interaction. Bradycardia (choice
C) is not associated with the MAOI and aged cheese interaction.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who develops an anaphylactic reaction to IV antibiotic administration. After assessing the client's respiratory status and stopping the medication infusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct Answer: A: Administer epinephrine 1M.
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps to reverse the severe allergic reaction by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways, thus improving breathing and blood pressure. Administering epinephrine intramuscularly is recommended in the initial management of anaphylaxis.
Summary of other choices:
B: Replacing the IV infusion with saline may help maintain fluid status but does not address the anaphylactic reaction.
C: Diphenhydramine may be used to relieve itching and hives but does not address the life-threatening respiratory distress in anaphylaxis.
D: Elevating the legs and feet does not address the immediate need to treat the anaphylactic reaction and may delay necessary interventions.
Extract:
Vital Signs Day 1:
Temperature 36.2 0 C (97.20 F) Respiratory rate 18/min
Heart rate 74/min
Blood pressure 1 1 8/68 mm Hg Sp02 96% on room air
Day 7:
Temperature 36.9 0 C (98.40 F) Heart rate 86/min
Respiratory rate 18/min Blood pressure 98/66 mm Hg Sp02 97% on room air
Provider Prescriptions Day 1:
Levodopa 250 mg/Carbidopa 25 mg 1 tablet daily Day
7:
Levodopa 250 mg/Carbidopa 25 mg 2 tablets daily
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following statements should the nurse include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E,F
Rationale: The correct statements to include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication are A, B, D, E, and F.
A: Consumption of a high-protein meal can reduce the effectiveness of the medication - Important for optimizing medication efficacy.
B: You can experience vivid nightmares - Warns of potential side effect.
D: The medication can cause nausea, so take with a meal - Helps manage potential side effect.
E: This medication can make you light-headed if you stand up too quickly from a seated or lying position - Warns of potential adverse effect.
F: You may initially notice an increase in involuntary movements - Informs about potential side effect.
These statements cover important aspects such as medication effectiveness, common side effects, how to manage side effects, and potential adverse effects. Other choices are incorrect because they do not address key information related to the medication's effects, side effects, or how to manage them effectively.
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking warfarin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Melena. Melena indicates gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of warfarin. It can lead to life-threatening complications such as hemorrhage. The nurse should report this finding immediately to the provider for prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent further harm to the client.
A: Fever may indicate an infection but is not directly related to warfarin therapy.
B: Abdominal cramping can be a common side effect of warfarin but is not as urgent as melena.
C: Hair loss is not a common side effect of warfarin and is not as concerning as melena.
In summary, melena is the priority finding to report because it suggests a severe and potentially life-threatening complication of warfarin therapy, while the other options are either less urgent or unrelated to warfarin side effects.