ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023 With NGN Questions and Correct Answers Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous graft. Which of the following findings indicates adequate circulation of the graft?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palpable thrill. A palpable thrill indicates that there is adequate circulation of the arteriovenous graft. A thrill is a vibration felt over the graft site, which suggests that blood is flowing through the graft properly. A palpable thrill is a positive sign of good circulation.
The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Membranous blood pressure does not provide information about the circulation of the graft.
C: Absence of a bruit could indicate decreased or absent blood flow through the graft.
D: Dilated appearance of the graft does not necessarily indicate adequate circulation; it could be due to other reasons such as infection or inflammation.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is admitting a client who reports tightness in their chest that radiates to left arm. Which of the following findings require immediate follow-up?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heart rate 110/min and irregular. This finding indicates potential cardiac issues like myocardial infarction. Immediate follow-up is necessary to assess for any life-threatening conditions. The other options are not as urgent. A: Temperature within normal range, C: Respiratory rate slightly elevated but not critical, D: Elevated blood pressure but not as concerning as irregular heart rate.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has COPD. Which of the following findings require immediate follow-up?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because tachypnea, productive cough with yellow mucus in a client with COPD can indicate an exacerbation or infection, requiring immediate intervention. A: Orientation is not an urgent concern. B: Restlessness can be due to various reasons and doesn't necessarily indicate an emergency. C: Pupillary reactivity is not relevant to COPD management.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Which of the following findings indicate potential improvement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium 4.3 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L). In heart failure exacerbation, potassium levels can be affected due to medications or fluid shifts. A potassium level within the normal range indicates electrolyte balance, which is crucial for cardiac function. Hemoglobin (
Choice
A) and hematocrit (
Choice
B) are indicators of oxygen-carrying capacity and volume status, not directly related to heart failure improvement. White blood cell count (
Choice
C) is not specific to heart failure exacerbation.
Therefore, the correct answer is D as it reflects a positive change in electrolyte balance, essential for cardiac function.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings indicate the client is at risk for developing complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, dysrhythmias. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to electrical disturbances causing dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Dysrhythmias can result in decreased cardiac output, further exacerbating heart failure. Respiratory alkalosis (
B) is not a direct complication of heart failure. Acute kidney injury (
C) can occur due to decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased renal perfusion, but it is not a direct risk factor for complications in heart failure. Fluid volume deficit (
D) is a common finding in heart failure due to fluid retention, but it is not a direct risk for complications like dysrhythmias.